New classification system for nasal deformity in cleft lip and palate reported

A proposed classification system appears highly accurate in evaluating nasal deformities in infants with cleft lip and/or palate (CLP), reports a study in the May/June issue of The Journal of Craniofacial Surgery. The journal is published in the Lippincott portfolio by Wolters Kluwer.

“This new tool offers a reliable and practice tool for categorizing the severity of nasal deformities in CLP patients,” comments lead author Martha Mejia, DDS, of Nicklaus Children’s Health System, Miami. “With ongoing evaluation, it may promote more consistent diagnosis, individualized treatment planning, and standardized approaches to enhance outcomes for infants with CLP.”

Standardized approach to evaluating CLP-related nasal deformities

Cleft lip and/or palate is one of the most common congenital deformities. Many infants with CLP have accompanying nasal deformities, but these are generally not included in standard CLP classification systems. Deformities of the nose may seem like a secondary concern at birth, but often become more prominent over time.

If a person cannot speak or hear due to nasal deformities secondary to orofacial clefts, it can significantly impact their ability to communicate. Effective communication skills are essential for achieving social acceptance and leading a normal life.

In their study, Dr. Mejia and colleagues report the development and initial evaluation of a new standardized tool to guide evaluation of CLP-related nasal deformities. The proposed classification focuses on factors readily assessed by clinicians treating infants with facial deformities – for example, symmetry of the septum, projection of the nasal tip, and the shape of the nostrils. Users rate each feature as moderate to severe, guided by patient photographs. The proposed system includes separate classifications for unilateral (one side) and bilateral (both sides) clefts.

To evaluate its accuracy, the researchers sent the classification system and instructions to an international panel of plastic surgeons and orthodontists with varying levels of experience in managing infants with CLP. Each clinician was sent a random sample of close-up patient photographs and asked to rate each factor as mild to severe, based on their understanding of the classification system. The reliability of the experts’ ratings was compared using a statistical technique called intraclass correlation coefficient (ICC).

‘Excellent’ agreement in classifying CLP-related nasal deformities

The findings “demonstrate[d] strong consistency among specialists applying the classification system to photographs,” the researchers write. Survey results suggested “excellent” agreement between the panel members’ ratings of the severity of nasal deformities. Although ICC values were higher for unilateral versus bilateral clefts (0.816 versus 0.743), both sets of ratings showed high reliability.

The proposed classification system provides a user-friendly tool for evaluating nasal deformities in in infants with CLP. “Prioritizing easily identifiable features bridges the gap between novice and experienced clinicians, promoting consistent diagnosis and treatment planning for CLP patients,” Dr Mejia and colleagues write. Their article includes figures illustrating the proposed classification system and explaining its use.

An important next step will be assessing the new tool’s use in evaluating improvement of nasal deformities after cleft repair surgery and orthodontic treatment. Dr. Mejia and coauthors conclude: “By tracking changes in nasal classification scores over time, clinicians can evaluate the efficacy of different treatment approaches and identify potential areas for refinement.”

Reference:

Mejia M, Bernal I, Cordero JP, Bercu C, Policherla R, Steinberg JP. A Proposed Nasal Deformity Classification System for Infants With Cleft Lip and Palate. J Craniofac Surg. 2025 May 27. doi: 10.1097/SCS.0000000000011151.

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Personalized Inhaled Bacteriophage Therapy Shows Promise for Cystic Fibrosis: Study

A small study published in Nature Medicine reported encouraging results for personalized inhaled bacteriophage therapy in treating cystic fibrosis (CF) patients with drug-resistant pulmonary infections. Individualized nebulized bacteriophage (phage) therapy has been found to decrease bacterial load and enhance lung function in CF patients with drug-resistant Pseudomonas aeruginosa infection. The research identifies phage therapy as a promising approach to tackle antimicrobial resistance, especially in chronic lung infections of CF. The study was conducted by Benjamin K.C. and colleagues.

Phage therapy, where lytic viruses are used to infect and kill targeted bacteria, is being considered as a solution to the worldwide antimicrobial resistance problem. Cystic fibrosis is a hereditary disease frequently complicated by chronic Pseudomonas aeruginosa infections that become more resistant to standard antibiotics with time. In this trial, an individualized phage therapy approach was tested in which the phages were chosen not only for their ability to kill the bacteria but also to cause bacterial vulnerabilities—like decreased antibiotic resistance or decreased virulence.

Nine adult CF patients (eight female, one male; median age 32 years, range 22–46 years) with MDR or PDR Pseudomonas infection were enrolled in a compassionate-use treatment protocol. The infections had failed multiple previous antibiotic regimens. Either a nebulized phage cocktail or a single-phage therapy was administered to each patient, chosen on the basis of anticipated evolutionary trade-offs that would compel the bacteria into becoming either less virulent or more antibiotic-sensitive.

Notably, both patients tolerated the phage therapy with no occurrence of adverse effects. The phages were administered via inhalation, which is where the infection was present.

Results

  • Patients enrolled: 9 (8 women, 1 man)

  • Median age: 32 years (range 22–46)

Type of infection: MDR or PDR Pseudomonas aeruginosa resistant to conventional antibiotics

  • Method of delivery: Nebulized cocktail or single phage therapy

  • Safety: No adverse effects reported

Reduction of bacteria:

  • Median: Reduction in Pseudomonas of 10⁴ CFU/ml

  • Mean: Reduction of 10² CFU/ml (P = 0.006)

Improvement of lung function:

  • Median FEV1: +6%

  • Mean FEV1: +8% (P = 0.004)

  • Sputum microbiome: Remains unchanged

  • Trade-offs: Compromise loss of antibiotic resistance or virulence of bacteria

Personalized nebulized phage therapy is shown to be a safe and effective method of decreasing bacterial load and enhancing lung function in cystic fibrosis patients with drug-resistant Pseudomonas aeruginosa infection. The novel therapy not only reduces bacterial numbers but also imposes genetic trade-offs on bacteria that can decrease their resistance and virulence.

Reference:

Chan, B.K., Stanley, G.L., Kortright, K.E. et al. Personalized inhaled bacteriophage therapy for treatment of multidrug-resistant Pseudomonas aeruginosa in cystic fibrosis. Nat Med (2025). https://doi.org/10.1038/s41591-025-03678-8

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Hormone Therapy in Postmenopause May Adversely Affect Bladder Health, Research Reveals

USA: A large-scale study exploring the link between menopausal status, hormone therapy, and bladder health in women has revealed critical insights into how urinary symptoms vary across different stages of menopause. Published in Menopause, the journal of The Menopause Society, the study sheds light on an under-researched aspect of women’s health—bladder function and lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS).

“Perimenopausal women were more than twice as likely as premenopausal women to report urgency urinary incontinence and other lower urinary tract symptoms. Both peri- and postmenopausal stages were linked to poorer bladder health scores,” the researchers reported. “Among postmenopausal women, hormone use was associated with a further decline, resulting in a 6-point reduction in Bladder Health Score and a 4.8-point drop in the Bladder Function Index.”

While hot flashes and night sweats are widely recognized as hallmark symptoms of menopause, the impact of hormonal changes on urinary health has not received equal attention. The RISE FOR HEALTH study was designed to fill this gap by examining bladder health across premenopausal, perimenopausal, and postmenopausal women and evaluating how hormone therapy influences these outcomes.

Camille P. Vaughan, Birmingham/Atlanta VA Geriatric Research Education and Clinical Center, Emory University, Atlanta, GA, and colleagues surveyed over 3,000 community-dwelling adult women in the United States between May 2022 and December 2023. Researchers assessed bladder health and urinary symptoms using validated tools and conducted multivariable regression analyses to explore associations.

The following were the key findings of the study:

  • Perimenopausal and postmenopausal women had significantly poorer bladder health and function compared to premenopausal women.
  • Perimenopausal women were over twice as likely (odds ratio 2.27) to report urgency urinary incontinence and other lower urinary tract symptoms.
  • Bladder Health Scores (BHS) and Bladder Function Indices (BFI) declined notably with the menopausal transition.
  • Hormone use varied across menopausal stages, with 38.3% of premenopausal women reporting use, compared to 21.5% of perimenopausal and 13.2% of postmenopausal women.
  • In postmenopausal women, hormone therapy, particularly systemic forms, was linked to poorer bladder outcomes.
  • Postmenopausal hormone users showed a 6-point reduction in BHS and a 4.8-point drop in BFI compared to non-users.

These findings confirm earlier reports that urinary symptoms tend to worsen with age and menopause. It also highlights the nuanced and sometimes adverse relationship between hormone use and bladder health in the later stages of menopause.

Researchers concluded that the interplay between hormonal changes and bladder health is multifaceted and warrants greater clinical attention. They emphasized the importance of proactive education and screening for urinary symptoms as women approach menopause. Early recognition and timely interventions may be key in preserving quality of life.

Overall, the study underscores the need for more targeted research and personalized approaches to managing bladder health during the menopause transition—a critical yet often overlooked component of women’s health.

Reference:

Vaughan, Camille P. MD, MS1; Markland, Alayne D. DO, MSc2; McGwin, Gerald PhD3; Lukacz, Emily S. MD4; Brady, Sonya S. PhD, LP5; Lacoursiere, Yvette D. MD, MPH6; Wyman, Jean F. PhD7; Sutcliffe, Siobhan PhD, ScM, MHS8; Smith, Ariana L. MD9; Kenton, Kimberly MD10; Stapleton, Ann MD11; Brubaker, Linda MD12; Harlow, Bernard L. PhD13. Association of menopausal status and hormone use with bladder health and lower urinary tract symptoms in US women: results from the RISE FOR HEALTH study. Menopause ():10.1097/GME.0000000000002541, April 29, 2025. | DOI: 10.1097/GME.0000000000002541

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SA-PCT Cleanser Effectively treats Acne without compromising Skin barrier: Study

A new study published in the Journal of Drugs in Dermatology showed that while maintaining the integrity of the skin barrier, a new salicylic acid (SA)-polymeric cleansing technology (PCT) cleanser successfully treats acne-prone skin.

Inflammatory lesions (pustules, papules, and nodules) and non-inflammatory lesions (comedones) are the hallmarks of acne vulgaris, a common inflammatory skin disorder. The quality of life is greatly impacted by this disorder, which is most common in adolescence but frequently advances into adulthood. Excess sebum production, the presence of the C. acnes bacterium on the skin, follicular hyperkeratinization, and inflammation are the four primary pathogenic variables linked to the development of acne.

Salicylic acid is one treatment option that has anti-inflammatory, anti-bacterial, sebum-reducing, and exfoliating properties. Although there are various forms of SA, SA in cleansers offers a more patient-favored and straightforward full-face and body treatment regimen. However, SA can worsen skin barrier disruption, causing irritation and poor compliance, when combined with harsh surfactants typically found in lathering cleansers.

Therefore, the effectiveness of a new acne cleanser that contains 2% salicylic acid (SA), polymeric cleansing technology, and a microgel complex in treating mild to moderate acne while preserving the integrity of the skin barrier was assessed in this study.

Measurements of transepithelial electrical resistance (TEER), IL-1α release, and hyperkeratinization were used to evaluate the impact of cleansers on the skin barrier on epidermal equivalents. Transepidermal water loss (TEWL), skin dryness, and erythema were evaluated in a 5-day exaggerated arm wash (EAW) research (n=33) in comparison to benchmark cleansers. A 12-week face research (n=35) assessed the impact on lipid profiles, acne reduction, and esthetic improvements. Throughout, the product’s tolerability and safety were observed.

The innovative SA-PCT with microgel complex cleanser preserved the integrity of the epidermal barrier in comparison to a traditional SA-surfactant cleanser, as evidenced by increased TEER (P<0.001), lower IL-1α release (P<0.0001), and no discernible hyperkeratinization (P<0.0001) in pre-clinical trials.

Clinical findings revealed no lipid barrier disruption with notable decreases in acne lesions beginning at week 4, reduced skin irritation (dryness: P<0.01, erythema: P<0.001), and less barrier disruption through decreased TEWL (P<0.001).

Self-reported improvements in skin oiliness and significant objective clinical changes in skin tone, texture, and post-inflammatory hyperpigmentation were seen (P<0.05). There were no reports of skin irritation, and the cleanser was well accepted. Overall, these outcomes show how well the new SA-PCT cleanser works to improve acne-prone skin while preserving the skin’s protective layer.

Source:

Hussain, R., Miller, D., Shyr, T., Friscia, D., Li, W.-H., Parsa, R., & Zeichner, J. (2025). Novel 2% salicylic acid cleanser with Polymeric Cleansing Technology treats acne without compromising skin barrier. Journal of Drugs in Dermatology: JDD, 24(6), 570–578. https://doi.org/10.36849/JDD.9019

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TB-CHAMP Trial Reveals Key Risk Factors for TB Infection in Children Under five

TB-CHAMP Trial Reveals key risk factors for TB Infection in children under five years of age.

Young children have a high risk of developing tuberculosis (TB) disease following infection with Mycobacterium tuberculosis (M.tb) in the absence of preventive treatment. Infection prevalence and risk factors for infection impact delivery of prevention strategies. We aimed to determine the prevalence of infection in child household contacts aged < 5 years exposed to adults with confirmed pulmonary multidrug-resistant (MDR)-TB and to determine risk factors for infection. TB-CHAMP was a trial of MDR-TB prevention that recruited children under 5, regardless of M.tb infection status. All children enrolled had an interferon-gamma release assay (IGRA) at baseline. We described M.tb infection prevalence, developed directed acyclic graphs to clarify causal relationships and used modified Poisson regression models to assess the relationship between risk factors and IGRA positivity. Results: Of 785 included children, 160 (20.4%) had a positive IGRA. Duration of cough and drug misuse in the index patient, age of the child, relationship between the child and the index patient and study site were significantly associated with risk of infection. The prevalence of infection was lower than observed in previous studies. This may be related to improved diagnosis and treatment of MDR-TB in the study setting and/or test limitations and has implications for TB preventive treatment (TPT). When considering TPT for child contacts, healthcare providers should be especially concerned about any young child exposed to an adult index patient who is his/her parent/primary caregiver, has a chronic cough and/or a history of drug misuse.

Reference:

Susan E Purchase, Joanna Brigden, James A Seddon, Neil A Martinson, Lee Fairlie, Suzanne Staples, Thomas Wilkinson, Trinh Duong, H Simon Schaaf, Anneke C Hesseling, Risk of tuberculosis infection in young children exposed to multidrug-resistant tuberculosis in the TB-CHAMP multi-site randomised controlled trial, Clinical Infectious Diseases, 2025;, ciaf284, https://doi.org/10.1093/cid/ciaf284

Keywords:

Susan E Purchase, Joanna Brigden, James A Seddon, Neil A Martinson, Lee Fairlie, Suzanne Staples, Thomas Wilkinson, Trinh Duong, H Simon Schaaf, Anneke C Hesseling, Risk, tuberculosis, infection, young, children, exposed, multidrug-resistant, tuberculosis, the TB-CHAMP, multi-site, randomised, controlled trial, Clinical Infectious Diseases, levofloxacin, risk factors, interferon-gamma release assays

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Elevated Uric Acid Levels More Common in Rheumatoid Arthritis Patients, suggests research

A population-based cross-sectional study published in Clinical Rheumatology reveals that individuals with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) are more likely to exhibit elevated uric acid levels and hyperuricemia compared to the general population. While hyperuricemia is known to be associated with gout and cardiovascular diseases, its connection to RA remains uncertain. Researchers analysed data from the National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey spanning 1999 to 2018 to explore this potential link.

This study aimed to explore the relationship between rheumatoid arthritis (RA) and hyperuricemia among adults. All the data were from the National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey (NHANES 1997–2018) database. Linear regression, logistic regression, and restricted cubic spline (RCS) analyses were used to investigate the association between rheumatoid arthritis and hyperuricemia. Subgroup analysis and interaction tests were conducted to assess the influence of various subgroups on their association. Results: This study included 41,460 patients, among whom 2603 had rheumatoid arthritis. The rheumatoid arthritis group had higher uric acid levels than the non-rheumatoid arthritis group (P < 0.001). Linear regression showed that rheumatoid arthritis was significantly related to uric acid levels among several adjusted models (all P < 0.05). Logistic regression analysis also indicated the independent association between rheumatoid arthritis and hyperuricemia in a positive relationship (P < 0.05). Subgroup analysis revealed a significant association in the subgroups of females, age ≥ 60 years, non-Hispanics, individuals with hypertension and antihypertensive drugs use, and those with BMI ≥ 30 kg/m2 (all P < 0.05). The interaction test showed that there was no interaction effect between baseline features and rheumatoid arthritis (all interaction P > 0.05). RCS analysis further found that the course of rheumatoid arthritis, rather than the age of diagnosis, was related to hyperuricemia (P < 0.05). Furthermore, we found that the association between rheumatoid arthritis and hyperuricemia was mainly observed in populations with 15–30-year course of rheumatoid arthritis (P < 0.05). Rheumatoid arthritis was associated with hyperuricemia, and their association was still stable even after adjusting for several variables, suggesting that uric acid levels should be routinely tested to detect hyperuricemia at an early stage in patients with rheumatoid arthritis.

Reference:

Zhao, C., Xiao, Q., Huang, W. et al. Association between rheumatoid arthritis and hyperuricemia among adults: a cross-sectional study based on NHANES data. Clin Rheumatol 44, 1759–1767 (2025). https://doi.org/10.1007/s10067-025-07386-z

Keywords:

Elevated, Uric Acid, Levels, Common, Rheumatoid Arthritis, Patients, Clinical Rheumatology, Zhao, C., Xiao, Q., Huang, W, Arthritis, Cross-sectional study, Hyperuricemia, NHANES, Rheumatoid

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NEET 2025: Meet the Top 10 Rankers Who Aced the MBBS Entrance Exam

New Delhi- The National Testing Agency (NTA) recently announced the results of the National Eligibility and Entrance Test (NEET) UG 2025 for MBBS, BDS, and AYUSH admissions in this academic year. 

Mahesh Kumar, a resident of Hanumangarh, Rajsthan, has emerged as the All India Topper, AIR 1, scoring 686 out of 720 marks.

In a proud moment for Madhya Pradesh, Utkarsh Avadhiya has emerged as the all-India topper, AIR 2. Utkarsh Awadhiya, a general category candidate from Madhya Pradesh, scored an impressive percentile of 99.9999095. Besides him, Krishang Joshi from Maharashtra has secured AIR 3 rank with 99.9998189. Mrinal Kishore Jha from Delhi NCT has secured AIR 4 with 99.9998189.

Also Read: NEET 2025: Check out Top Medical Colleges in Maharashtra to pursue MBBS as per NIRF

Meanwhile, Avika Agarwal from Delhi NCT is the female topper in NEET UG 2025. She has scored 99.9996832 percentile and secured NEET UG rank 5.

Moreover, Jenil Vinodbhai Bhayani from Gujarat has secured the sixth rank by scoring 99.9996832, Keshav Mittal from Punjab has secured the seventh rank by scoring 99.9996832, Jha Bhavya Chirag from Gujarat has secured the eighth rank by scoring 99.9996879, Harsh Kedawat from Delhi NCT has secured the ninth rank by scoring 99.9995474 and Aarav Agarwal from Maharashtra has secured the tenth rank by scoring 99.9995474.

NEET UG 2025 TOPPERS

ALL INDIA RANK (AIR)

NAME

GENDER

CATEGORY

PERCENTILE

STATE

1

Mahesh Kumar

Male

General

99.9999547

Rajasthan

2

Utkarsh Awadhiya

Male

General

99.9999095

Madhya Pradesh

3

Krishang Joshi

Male

General

99.9998189

Maharashtra

4

Mrinal Kishore Jha

Male

General

99.9998189

Delhi (NCT)

5

Avika Aggarwal

Female

General

99.9996832

Delhi (NCT)

6

Jenil Vinodbhai Bhayani

Male

General

99.9996832

Gujarat

7

Keshav Mittal

Male

General

99.9996832

Punjab

8

Jha Bhavya Chirag

Male

General

99.9996379

Gujarat

9

Harsh Kedawat

Male

General

99.9995474

Delhi (NCT)

10

Aarav Agrawal

Male

General

99.9995474

Maharashtra

Utkarsh Avadhiya had enrolled in Aakash Institute’s Foundational NEET course in Class 10; however, Avadhiya started preparing for the exam from Class 11. While, speaking to the Indian Express on his achievement, Utkarsh said that “I was sleeping when the NEET UG results were announced. My parents checked my scorecard, and my mother woke me up and said that I got AIR 2. At first, I was like ‘you are lying, that’s not happening at all,’ but when I saw it myself, I was like ‘Oh my god! What has happened.’ The realisation took time to sink in”.

Krishang Joshi AIR 3 originally hails from Uttarakhand; however, he took the NEET UG exam from Maharashtra and made his family and state proud with this remarkable achievement. He said, “Since class 10, my ambition was to become a doctor, because as my parents say, it is a very noble profession, you can work independently and serve the society”, quoted HT.

Mrinal Kishore Jha, AIR 4, is a 17-year-old NEET aspirant who originally hails from Bettiah in West Champaran district of Bihar, however, he now lives in Delhi. For the past two years, Mrinal has followed a structured and disciplined routine. He lived in a PG to be near his coaching centre. He went to his school daily to fulfil the mandatory attendance.

Avika Agarwal, 17, from Faridabad, secured AIR 5 and earned the distinction of being the female topper of NEET UG 2025. She now aims to begin her medical studies at AIIMS, New Delhi. “I was anxiously waiting for the results — June 10, June 11, June 12 and so on. Finally, when I saw rank 5… I started crying and my parents started crying too. I can’t believe I am the female topper of NEET UG”, Avika, told ThePrint. “

Jhanil Bhayani made Surat proud with AIR 6th, securing the top rank from Gujarat. Jhanil attributed her success to her two years of consistent hard work, dedicated teachers and supportive parents. Jhanil started her NEET preparation in Class 9 through the foundation course at her school. Expressing her happiness, Jhanil thanked her teachers and parents for guiding her throughout this journey.

Meanwhile, Keshav Mittal, who got AIR 7 from Punjab, is now planning to join the MBBS batch of AIIMS Delhi and fulfil his father’s dream of becoming a doctor. Sharing his experience, he said, “I mainly followed the guidance of my coaching institute apart from NCERT books. Before the exam, I took at least 150 mock tests, which helped me improve my preparation.”

18-year-old Bhavya Chirag Jha from Ahmedabad wrote a remarkable chapter in his NEET UG 2025 journey, securing AIR 8 in his very first attempt. He got inspiration from his elder brother, Sarvagya Jha, who is an intern at GMERS Medical College in Sola, Ahmedabad. Currently, his top choice is AIIMS New Delhi.

18-year-old Harsh Kedawat secured AIR 9. He started preparing for NEET right from Class 11. NEET-UG preparation often requires 10-12 hours of study every day. Born in Jaipur and raised in Noida, Harsh’s journey was supported by his chartered accountant father and homemaker mother, whose unwavering support complemented his dedication.

Aarav Agarwal from Maharashtra, who got AIR 10 in NEET 2025, is a general category candidate. He credited his parents and teachers for this great achievement. Since childhood, his dream was to become a doctor. There are many doctors in his family, seeing whom he also got inspired to go into the medical field.

Also Read: NEET 2025 Result declared, final answer key out, download scorecards NOW!

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UP PG medical admissions 2025- All You Need to Know About NEET PG Counselling Process

Uttar Pradesh- The Uttar Pradesh Director of Medical Education and Training (UPDGME) has released the brochure regarding the National Eligibility and Entrance Test-Postgraduate (NEET PG) Counselling for the academic year 2025 for the MD, MS, Diploma, DNB and MDS Courses for admission into the Government, Private Medical & Dental Colleges, Institutes and Universities.

The brochure includes all the important details regarding the NEET PG Counselling 2025, such as eligibility, Reservation, Registration Process, Merit List & Choice Filling, Admission Process, etc. The brochure has been released on the official website of UPDGME; therefore, candidates can view the same from there.

Also Read: UP DGME Issues Guidelines for NEET PG, MDS Admissions 2025, check details

ELIGIBILITY

1 Candidates who have qualified NEET-PG-2025/NEET-MDS-2025 entrance examination.

2 Candidates who have completed their one year of Compulsory Rotatory Internship on or before by 31st March 2025 for MDS and 31st July 2025 for MD/MS /Diploma/DNB courses.

3 Candidates who have passed the BBS/BDS course from the Govt/Private Medical & Dental Colleges of U.P. are eligible for Government State Quota seats and Private Medical College seats.

4 Candidates who have passed MBBS/BDS from AMU, Aligarh, BHU, Varanasi, AIIMS Raebareli and AIIMS Gorakhpur are not eligible for admission in Government State Quota Seats. Such candidates are eligible for admission only in Private Medical & Dental Colleges/ Institutes/Universities.

5 Candidates who have passed MBBS/BDS from outside of Uttar Pradesh are eligible for admissions only in Private Medical & Dental Colleges/Institutes/Universities.

6 A candidate who has already taken admission on the basis of earlier NEET-PG/NEET-MDS entrance examination is not eligible for the NEET PG-2025/ NEET-MDS-2025 counselling until he/she completes and passes the course where he/she is presently admitted.

7 Only those NEET qualified In-service (PMHS) candidates, whose list is provided by the Director General Health Services under policy framed by the Department of Medical Health & Family Welfare, Government of Uttar Pradesh, are eligible for due weightage as per norms, will be eligible for UP NEET PG-2025 counselling.

8 Only In-service (PMHS) candidates are eligible for state quota DNB seats.

9 Foreign Medical Graduates (FMG) & Foreign National Candidates are eligible for UP NEET PG-2025 counselling as per the eligibility criteria.

REGISTRATION PROCESS

1 Only online registration will be permissible on the official website of UPDGME.

2 Candidates are advised to fill the registration form on their own/self on the UPNEET website and not through any agent or third party.

3 For registration, the candidate will use his/her NEET-PG Roll No. & same email ID used by them during registration on the NBE website for NEET PG-2025/ NEET MDS-2025 entrance examination and follow the instructions on the website.

4 Candidate’s data like Name, Father’s Name, Mother’s Name, Date of Birth, etc., at the time of registration on the NBE portal will be pre-populated and will be used for counselling purposes. No request to change these details will be entertained.

5 There, after the Registration form will be displayed, candidates have to enter only his/her domicile, category, subcategory, In-service (PMHS) employment status and MBBS passed from, address, etc.

6 Candidates will make payment of Registration fee only once of Rs. 3,000/- for 1st, 2nd & 3rd round of counselling.

7 All eligible candidate requires fresh registration for the Stray vacancy round separately with a Registration fee of Rs. 3,000/- Registration fee is non-refundable.

8 After successful submission of the registration form, a registration number will be generated.

9 During the Registration process, candidates will create a Password for choice filling and locking of the choices. Candidates are hereby advised not to share/disclose the password to anyone.

10 Once the registration process is successfully completed, candidates are advised to download their Registration form & Registration fee slip for future reference.

SECURITY FEE

1 For Govt. Medical & Dental Colleges/Institutes/ Universities- Rs. 30,000/-.

2 For Pvt. Medical Colleges/Institutes/ Universities- Rs 2,00,000/-.

3 For Pvt. Dental Colleges/Institutes/ Universities- Rs 1,00,000/-

Meanwhile, if the security fee is not submitted by the candidate, then he/she will not be permitted to fill out the choice filling. After successful payment, download the security money receipt for future reference.

DOCUMENTS

The following documents in the original and one set of self-attested photocopies will be deposited at the time of admission-

1 Copy of the Allotment letter.

2 Admit Card of NEET PG-2025/NEET MDS-2025.

3 Score card/Rank letter of NEET PG-2025/ NEET MDS-2025.

4 High School Marksheet/Certificate (as proof of date of birth).

5 Mark sheets of all professional examinations of MBBS/BDS.

6 MBBS/BDS passing out certificate or degree

7 Compulsory Rotatory Internship completion certificate.

8 Permanent / Provisional Registration Certificate (State Medical Council/MCI/DCI).

9 Reservation certificate (SC/ST/OBC/EWS/PwD certificate), if applicable.

ADMISSION PROCESS

1 Candidates have to complete their admission Process, including fee deposition at the allotted Government Medical & Dental Colleges or the Nodal centre mentioned in the allotment letter.

2 It will be mandatory for the candidates who have been allotted the seats in Private Medical & Dental College/Institute/University (except minority Institutions) to deposit the tuition fee fixed by the government at the time of admission. In minority Colleges/Institutions, it will be mandatory for the candidates to deposit the tuition fee prescribed by the respective Colleges/Institutes.

3 If the candidate does not take admission to the allotted seat by the due date, he/she shall forfeit any right of admission on the basis of said counselling/allotment.

4 Candidates will have to produce all original academic & category certificates at the time of admission.

5 Candidates who fail to produce the required original documents at the time of admission, or if any concealment or falsification of facts comes to light at the time of admission or thereafter during the academic sessions, will make the candidate lose his/her candidature and he/she will be subjected to legal action.

ONLINE CHOICE FILLING

1 For choice filing, visit the official website of UPDGME and log in by using the NEET Roll number and Password created at the time of registration.

2 Candidates can fill as many choices as he/she wish. A candidate can change his/her choice until the final locking.

3 Choice filing will not be completed till candidates finally submit and lock their choices within the scheduled time. Choice Locking is compulsory; if not locked, then online allotment will not occur.

4 Once the choice is locked, it can not be altered/modified/changed.

RESERVATION

1 The list of SC/ST/OBC categories shall be as notified by the Government of Uttar Pradesh as applicable at the time of counselling.

2 Reservation of seats under PwD Category is 5% in Government State Quota Seats and the 21 Benchmark Disabilities as envisaged under the regulations of the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act 2016 and as per the NMC norms.

3 Candidates who want to avail 5% PwD reservation in PG seats of Govt medical institutions should obtain Disability certificate as per 21 Benchmark Disabilities given under RPWD Act 2016 and as per NMC norms, from the designated disability centres.

4 PwD Certificate issued by any other Hospital/ Board will not be acceptable.

5 All certificates related to reservation will be valid only in the format prescribed by the Government of Uttar Pradesh and issued by the competent authority of Uttar Pradesh.

6 For the EWS and OBC category, certificates issued only on or after April 01, 2025, will be valid.

7 Reserved category candidates of other states will be treated as unreserved category candidates for UP NEET PG/MDS counselling-2025.

8 Reservation Policy of the State Government for the NEET PG-2025 counselling in Government State Quota seats is as follows-

VERTICAL RESERVATION

i S.C.-21%

ii S.T.-2%

iii O.B.C – 27%

iv EWS-10%

HORIZONTAL RESERVATION

i PwD-5%

SEAT ALLOTMENT

1 After scheduled period of choice filling, seat allotment will be done on the basis of merit cum choice filled by the candidates.

2 Seat allotment status of successful candidates will be displayed on the website.

3 Allotted candidates will have to download the allotment letter before reporting at the allotted Medical College /Dental College/ Designated Nodal Centre.

4 In the first round of counselling, if a candidate does not take admission to the allotted seat, the candidate will be allowed to exit for free.

5 If a Candidate has secured admission after the first round of counselling in the allotted college but wants to reshuffle his/her seat/college, then he/she will remain eligible for upgradation of seat up to the third round of counselling.

6 If the candidate is trying for upgradation, it is advised not to fill the choice for the same seat/college in which the candidate is already admitted. In case if candidate fills the same seat/college in the reshuffling rounds and the candidate is allotted the same seat again, then the previous allotment would automatically be cancelled.

7 It is mandatory to take admission in the new allotted seat; if the candidate does not take admission in the new (re-shuffled) seat, the new allotment will be cancelled.

8 The conversión of seats will be carried out during the 3rd round of counselling for the State quota. The said conversion will be done only when the candidates belonging to the said conversión category have exhausted.

To view the brochure, click the link below

https://medicaldialogues.in/pdf_upload/updgme-neet-pg-2025-counselling-check-all-details-here-291238.pdf

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Chandigarh Hospital directed to pay Rs 25 lakh compensation for botched gall bladder surgery

Stent broken, stuck in pancreatic duct! Chandigarh Hospital told to pay Rs 25 lakh compensation for botched gall bladder surgery

The District Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (DCDRC)- DF-1 has directed Chandigarh-based Mukat Hospital to pay Rs 25 lakh compensation for a botched gall-bladder surgery.

During the surgery, a PD stent broke, and part of the stent got stuck in the Pancreatic Duct. For this, the patient had to undergo a further procedure at Medanta Hospital.

Apart from paying Rs 25 lakh compensation, the hospital was also directed to pay Rs 6,37,000, the amount paid by the complainant at Medanta Hospital for treatment and also pay Rs 10,000 as litigation cost.

The history of the case goes back to 2021, when the patient was suffering from upper abdominal pain and, accordingly, she approached the treating hospital, where she was diagnosed with Cholelithiasis (Gall Bladder Stone). The treating doctors advised the patient and her family to get the Gall Bladder removed via surgery, i.e., Cholecystectomy, immediately.

After the complainant and her family gave consent for a Laparoscopic Cholecystectomy, the complainant was informed that while removing the Gall Bladder, a stent would be inserted in the Pancreas. Immediately, the Laparoscopic Cholecystectomy was conducted. However, while conducting the procedure to insert the stent in the Pancreas, the stent broke down from the outside, and part of the stent was stuck in the Pancreatic Duct.

For more information, click on the link below:

Stent broken, stuck in pancreatic duct! Chandigarh Hospital told to pay Rs 25 lakh compensation for botched gall bladder surgery

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AIIMS Bhubaneswar Invites Applications for Post-Doctoral Fellowship Programme January 2025, Know All Details Here

Bhubaneswar- The All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) Bhubaneshwar is inviting online applications from Indian Citizens for admission to the Post-Doctoral Fellowship (PDF) programme for a maximum tenure period of 01(one) year at the AIIMS, Bhubaneshwar, for the Academic Session January 2025.

Candidates who are fulfilling all eligibility criteria may apply through the online mode. The candidates who are in service in any government. Hospitals/ Institutions are required to submit their application through the proper channel only. The candidates will not be permitted for the Interview if they fail to produce a no-objection certificate on the day of the interview during scrutiny of documents. They may be allowed provisionally only if they produce a certificate informing the HOD/Head of Organisation of the Institute in which they are employed. If it is brought to the notice of authorities at any stage that the candidate had not submitted the application through the proper channel, then the candidature will stand cancelled and in case of a selected candidate, services will be terminated immediately.

Also Read: INI SS July 2025 Seat position revised: 2 Seats Added in AIIMS Bhubaneshwar, 5 seats in AIIMS Nagpur

In this regard, AIIMS, Bhubaneshwar, has released a notification detailing the Number of Seats, Eligibility, age limit, Emoluments, Application Procedure, etc, for the Fellowship Programmes. As per the notification, the starting date for submission of the online application form is 17th June 2025 till 1st July 2025.

ELIGIBILITY

1 M.D/ D.N.B in Anaesthesiology from a University/Institute recognised by MCI.

2 (MS/DNB or equivalent) in General Surgery from a University/Institute recognised by MCI.

3 MD / DNB in Radio-diagnosis from a University/Institute recognised by MCI.

4 MBBS and MHA or MD in Hospital Administration from a University/Institute recognised by MCI..

5 MCh (Neuro Surgery) from an Institute/Medical college recognised by the Medical Council of India (MCI)..

6 MCh (Neuro Surgery) from an Institute/Medical college recognised by the Medical Council of India (MCI).

7 MS/MS/DNB in Obstetrics and Gynaecology with at least 1 year of Senior Residency in Obstetrics and Gynaecology from an Institute/recognised medical college/centre.

8 MCh / DNB in Neurosurgery from a University/Institute recognised by MCI.

9 MD / DNB in Anaesthesia from a University/Institute recognised by MCI.

10 MD or DNB in Medicine/Transfusion Medicine/ Pathology from a University/Institute recognised by MCI.

11 MD Paediatrics or DNB Paediatrics from a University/Institute recognised by MCI.

12 MD in Community Medicine/ Master’s degree in Public Health or Epidemiology/ Doctoral degree in Epidemiology, Nutrition or Health Sciences.

APPLICATION PROCEDURE

Candidates who are fulfilling the eligibility criteria must apply through online mode only by visiting the official Website of AIIMS Bhubaneshwar. Under Recruitment > Recruitment Notice> Online Recruitment. Failing which, the application/s will be rejected and no further communication will be entertained.

Candidates are advised to download the filled application form along with the fee receipt after submission of the application. The same is to be submitted at the time of document verification/Interview.

DOCUMENTS

The applicants shall upload the scanned copies of the following original certificates to the online form-

1 Date of Birth Certificate.

2 Internship Completion Certificate.

3 Qualifying degree (MBBS / BDS / MD / MS / MDS / DNB).

4 Medical registration Certificate.

5 Relevant Category Certificate, if any.

6 Other relevant certificates, if any.

7 Tenure completion certificate.

8 Experience Certificates, if any, etc.

9 No Objection Certificate.

APPLICATION FEES

1 General/OBC Category- Rs. 1500/- with transaction Charges as applicable.

2 SC/ST/EWS Category- Rs. 1200/- with transaction Charges as applicable.

3 PWBD Category- No application Fees.

SELECTION PROCEDURE

1 The candidate can apply for more than one post (Maximum 03 departments) out of the listed Departments separately, but they have to apply separately for different posts/Departments. However, the candidate will have to deposit the application fee separately for each post.

2 Written examination will only be conducted when the number of applicants is more than three times the number of posts advertised. However, there will be no written test for the post against which a smaller number of applications are received than the vacancies. The Director, AIIMS, Bhubaneswar, will have the discretion to decide for which posts a written examination to be conducted and for which posts there will be no written examination. The decision thereof will be final.

3 The merit list (selected and waiting list) shall be prepared on the basis of combined marks of the written test and personal interview, or only Personal Interview as the case may be. No TA/DA will be paid to attend the Interview.

4 Any vacancy arising because of non-joining by selected candidates in this selection or by resignation of candidates, the post will be offered to the candidates from the waiting list according to the merit panel. All applicants must provide their latest mobile numbers and email addresses for timely communication.

5 For qualification /Selection Procedure/Emolument/date of Interview and other latest details, candidates are advised to visit the AIIMS, Bhubaneswar website regularly.

6 Selected candidates will be expected to stay in the Institute Campus if offered residential accommodation.

7 After filling of available posts of all remaining candidates shall be kept in the waiting list. They must submit their two latest phone numbers and email to the Academic Section for faster communication.

8 Prior experience (research or clinical) in PDF in Critical Care Medicine / Palliative Care Medicine / Minimal Access Surgery and PDF in Diagnostic Neuro Imaging as applicable will be given preference in the selection process of upto 5 marks as decided by the committee.

9 Candidates working in the government. / Semi-Govt., PSU should apply through the proper channel only. The in-service candidates will not be permitted to join if selected, without a “No Objection Certificate” from the employer. In this connection, it is mentioned that as per the terms and conditions of the Senior Residency Scheme that their engagement is to be regulated as per the CCS (Temporary Service Rules). As per rule 1(3) of the CCS (TSR) that these rules shall apply to all persons who hold a Civil Post including all civilians paid from defence service estimate under the Govt. of India, and who are under the rule making control of President, but who don’t hold a lien or suspended lien on any post under the Govt. of India or State Govt.

NUMBER OF SEATS

S.NO

DEPARTMENT

FELLOWSHIP

VACANCY

1

Anaesthesiology Anaesthesia

Paediatric

1

2

General Surgery

PDF in Minimal Access Surgery

1

3

Radio-diagnosis

PDF in Diagnostic Neuro Imaging

1

4

Hospital Administration

PDF in Health Care Quality & Patient Safety

1

5

Neuro surgery

PDF in Spine & Base of Skull Surgery

1

PDF in Neuroendovascular Surgery

6

Obstetrics and Gynaecology

PDF in Gynaecological Oncology

1

7

Trauma and Emergency

PDF in Neuro-Trauma

1

PDF in Trauma Anaesthesia & Acute Care

8

Medical Oncology/Haematology

PDF in Clinical Haematology

1

9

Paediatric

PDF in Paediatric Infectious Diseases

1

10

Community Medicine (Extramural Project/Sponsored)

Fellowship in Public Health Nutrition

1

TOTAL

11

EMOLUMENTS

Rs. 67,700/- as per 7th CPC, Level –11 of the Pay Matrix + NPA plus other usual Allowances as admissible under rules. However, a sponsored candidate against Fellowship in Community Medicine will not be paid emoluments.

To view the notification, click the link below

https://medicaldialogues.in/pdf_upload/aiims-bhubaneswar-invites-applications-for-post-doctoral-fellowship-programme-january-2025-know-all-details-here-290682.pdf

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