Antibiotics Identified as Leading Cause of Anaphylaxis in Children in new study

A new study published in the European Journal of Pediatrics showed that antibiotics, particularly ceftriaxone, were the most commonly related to anaphylactic reactions in children. This highlights the need for heightened awareness and careful monitoring when prescribing antibiotics to pediatric patients.

Drugs are the most common etiological agents in deadly anaphylaxis in most areas where data is available. Data on drug-induced anaphylaxis in children are sparse, with most case studies including adult populations. Azize Pınar Metbulut and crew conducted this study to understand demographics, clinical manifestations, risk factors, causative agents, and therapy options for drug-related anaphylaxis in the pediatric population.

Pediatric patients between the ages of 1 month and 18 months, who were admitted to the Pediatric Allergy and Immunology outpatient clinics of 11 participating centers between January 2017 and December 2022 with a presumptive diagnosis of drug-induced anaphylaxis and who met the standard criteria for anaphylaxis were included in this multicenter retrospective study.

A total of 293 anaphylactic incidents that occurred in 265 individuals were included, of which 48.1% (n 141) were female. During the index event, the median age of the patients was 107 months. When compared to home surroundings, hospital settings had a higher rate of anaphylaxis. In 40.3% of the instances, the administration was peroral, and in 59.7%, it was parenteral.

The most often suspected medication classes were antibiotics, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory medicines, and chemotherapeutics; nevertheless, the most prevalent culprits among antibiotics were the cephalosporin group, particularly ceftriaxone. 39.6% of the events had severe anaphylaxis, whereas 54.9% had mild anaphylaxis.

5 of the patients experienced a biphasic response. Adrenaline therapy was administered to only 72% of patients. A total of 39 individuals were confirmed by diagnostic tests, comprising skin prick, intradermal, and drug provocation tests, conducted between 1 and 120 months following the index response.

The results showed positive results in 23.4%, 17.2%, and 20.3% of instances, respectively. Protocols for possible drug desensitization were performed on four individuals. Overall, algorithmic assessment is necessary for pediatric patients suffering from drug-related anaphylaxis in order to guarantee a precise diagnosis, stop recurrence, and find safe substitute therapies.

Source:

Metbulut, A. P., Haci, İ. A., Can, D., Bekiş Bozkurt, H., Cavkaytar, Ö., Arga, M., Özçeker, D., Kavas Yildiz, Y., Vezir, E., Arikoğlu, T., Kuyucu, S., Azkur, D., Güvenir, H., Kendirci, N., Orhan, F., Usta Güç, B., Bahçeci, S., & Dibek Misirlioğlu, E. (2025). Evaluation of drug-related anaphylaxis in children: multi-center study. European Journal of Pediatrics, 184(3), 230. https://doi.org/10.1007/s00431-025-06068-x

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Seeking MBBS at AFMC Pune this year! Here’s complete admission guide

Pune- Armed Forces Medical College (AFMC), Pune has released the information brochure for its MBBS course for 2025. Admission is based on NEET UG 2025 scores, and candidates must apply separately through the DGHS portal.

A total of 145 seats are available (115 for boys and 30 for girls), with up to 10 seats reserved for SC/ST candidates and 5 seats for foreign nationals sponsored by the Government of India. Applicants must be Indian citizens (with exceptions for certain foreign candidates), unmarried, medically fit, and between 17 and 24 years of age as of 31 December 2025. Candidates must have passed the qualifying exam in the first attempt with specific subject and mark requirements. Document verification and timely reporting are mandatory; any discrepancies or delays may lead to cancellation of admission.

As per the information bulletin, the duration of the MBBS course is 4½ years followed by compulsory rotating internship training of one year. All medical cadets after completing final MBBS examination will undergo internship training in selected service hospitals recognized by the National Medical Commission (NMC).

Eligible candidates who are interested to join AFMC, Pune to pursue the MBBS course will have to mandatorily register and apply for AFMC, Pune on DGHS official website during the registration window provided by the DGHS. Below are the details-

Also Read: NEET PG 2025 for admissions to AFMS Institutions, check all details

DOCUMENT SCRUTINY

1 The candidates who have made it to the final merit list/wait list as published on DG-1D website & AFMC website and thereafter called for admission will have to produce the original Admit card for NEET UG – 2025 containing the NEET Roll number, original mark sheets of their qualifying examination and other documents, details of which will be given in the joining instructions. If their results and mark sheets are not received by the date of reporting for admission to AFMC, their candidature will be cancelled and no representation in this respect will be entertained. No candidate will be admitted provisionally awaiting result of the qualifying examination. If at any point of time in the process of interview, admission, or MBBS course the documents of the candidate are found to be false/not authentic or any other discrepancy is observed, the candidature / selection / admission of the candidate will be cancelled forthwith.

2 Wait list will be released along with the merit list only. The waitlisted candidates will be called in blocks and will be offered seats in order of merit. Candidates are required to report strictly by 1400 hrs on the day of reporting. Anyone reaching AFMC Pune after the cut off time will not be entertained in any circumstances. Candidates should keep certificates and fees ready and be ready to move at short notice on receipt of intimation by telephone, letter or e-mail.

3 No intimation about non-selection or correspondence in this regard will be entertained. No seats will be kept vacant for candidates higher in merit in waiting list if they fail to report on the date and time on which they have been called for reporting.

4 Candidates MUST preserve the NEET UG–2025 admit card till the admission to AFMC is over. Admit card along with NEET UG–2025 Roll number, will be required during the interview and final admission to college.

ELIGIBILITY

A candidate seeking admission to the MBBS Course in AFMC is eligible if he / she fulfils the following criteria-

1 The candidate should be a citizen of India. Foreign nationals of Indian origin may be admitted into AFMC only after they have acquired Indian Citizenship or in respect of whom the Ministry of Home Affairs issues a certificate of eligibility. This however does not apply to the 05 Govt Sponsored Candidates from Friendly Foreign Countries.

2 Must be unmarried. Marriage during the course is not permitted.

3 Should be medically fit.

4 The candidate should have attained the age of 17 years at the time of admission or should be completing that age on or before 31 Dec of the year of admission of the first year of MBBS course but must not have attained the age of 24 years on that date, i.e., must have been born not earlier than 01 January 2002 and not later than 31 December 2008.

NON-ELIGIBILITY

The following categories of candidates are not eligible to apply-

1 Candidates who have passed in Domestic Science, Domestic Arithmetic, and Lower Math separately or in combination with other subjects like General Science / Social studies in High School / Higher Secondary (Multipurpose) or equivalent examination.

2 Candidates who have passed only Pre-University / Pre-Degree (one-year course) or PreProfessional in Agriculture / Veterinary / Dental Examination.

3 Candidates who have passed the Pre-professional or equivalent qualifying examination as a private candidate or from Open schools.

4 Candidates who have secured the requisite percentage but in subsequent attempts or compartment examination.

ACADEMIC QUALIFICATIONS

Candidates must have passed one of the qualifying examinations below in the first attempt with English, Physics, Chemistry and Biology/ Bio-technology taken simultaneously and securing not less than 60% of the aggregate marks in these three science subjects taken together and not less than 50% marks in English and 50% marks in each of the science subjects. They must have also passed an examination in Mathematics of the tenth standard. The examinations are-

1 The Higher Secondary (10+2) or equivalent examination in science of a statutory Indian University/board or other recognized examination body with English, Physics, Chemistry & Biology/ Bio-technology which shall include practical test in all of these science subjects.

2 The Pre-professional/pre-medical examination with English, Physics, Chemistry and Biology/ Bio-technology (after passing either Higher Secondary School examination or pre- University or equivalent examination) which shall include practical test in these science subjects.

3 1st year of three years Degree course of a recognized University with English, Physics, Chemistry, and Biology/ Bio-technology including practical test in science subjects provided the examination is a University Examination.

4 Senior Secondary of a statutory Examination Board of Indian School Certificate examination of 12 years of study, last two years of study comprising of Physics, Chemistry, Biology/ Bio-technology and Mathematics or any other elective subject with English at higher level.

5 Higher Secondary School Certificate examination of Maharashtra State Board of Higher Secondary Education with English at Higher level, anyone of the Modern Indian or Modern Foreign or Classical Languages, Physics, Chemistry, Biology/ Biotechnology and Mathematics or any other elective subject.

6 Any other examination which in scope and standard is found to be equivalent to the Higher Secondary Science/Pre-Professional/Pre-medical Examination of Indian University/ Board with English, Physics, Chemistry and Biology/ Bio-technology including practical test in each of these Science subjects.

7 B.Sc. Examination of a recognized Indian University provided that he/she has passed the B.Sc. Examination in not less than two of the subjects Physics, Chemistry, Botany, Zoology / Bio-technology and further that he/she has passed the qualifying examination with Physics, Chemistry, Biology and English.

8 Candidates who have appeared or will be appearing in qualifying examination may also apply. Admission, if selected, however, will be subject to passing and meeting the eligibility criteria.

9 Regarding the requirement of Mathematics, any candidate who has passed Higher Secondary, Senior Cambridge or Indian School Certificate Examination and had not offered Mathematics in the final year will be deemed eligible if he / she had studied Mathematics up to the pre-final year stage (X Class) and had passed an examination in the subject provided it was at least of Tenth standard. A certificate signed by the Head Master or Principal of the school in which candidate has studied should be produced at the time of interview in such cases. A candidate who had not taken Mathematics in the Tenth or an equivalent examination but had subsequently passed in Mathematics as an additional subject in I. Sc. / B.Sc. examination is also eligible.

SC/ST CANDIDATES

For the SC/ST category candidates, up to 10 seats out of 145 will be offered subject to fulfilling the following criteria-

1 The SC/ST candidates must have applied for AFMC, Pune and also qualified in the NEET UG-2025 written examination.

2 They must fulfil all other conditions/standards, as applicable to non-SC / ST candidates, like age eligibility, academic qualifications, medical fitness, etc.

3 These seats will be in addition to any vacancies secured by SC/ST candidates on the basis of their position in the main merit list.

4 In case of any SC / ST girl / boy, admitted against these vacancies the number of girls / boys to be admitted against the general seats will be reduced correspondingly.

5 All such candidates will have to sign a surety bond on the same lines and on the same conditions as Non-SC / ST candidates.

NUMBER OF SEATS

A total of 145 medical cadets (115 boys & 30 girls) will be admitted for the year 2025. In addition to the above 145 seats, Govt. of India at its discretion through Ministry of External Affairs & Ministry of Defence may sponsor and select five (05) NEET(UG) qualified foreign students from friendly foreign countries for MBBS training in AFMC, under their aid / collaboration programs. Up to 10 seats out of 145 are offered to candidates belonging to the Scheduled Castes/ Scheduled Tribes (SC/ST) subject to the provisions.

CANCELLATION OF ADMISSION

Any candidate, during the whole process of admission or subsequently after admission, if found to be having less marks in the qualifying examination or produces false certificates or conceals any disease to get admission, his / her admission will be treated as cancelled and fees / deposit will be forfeited.

To view the information bulletin, click the link below

https://medicaldialogues.in/pdf_upload/afmc-285484.pdf

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Batch of Tofajak Tablets earlier classified as NSQ now flagged as Spurious

New Delhi: Through a recent revised drug alert, the Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO) has classified a batch of Tofacitinib Tablets IP 5 mg (TOFAJAK TABLETS) as spurious. The batch was earlier classified as Not of Standard Quality (NSQ).

The Medical Dialogues team had reported that 41 drug formulations were declared as Not of Standard Quality (NSQ) in November 2024, based on testing conducted by various CDSCO laboratories. Among these was a batch of Tofacitinib Tablets IP 5 mg (TOFAJAK TABLETS) (Batch No. 4F30009), listed under Cipla LTD , which was flagged by the Regional Drugs Testing Laboratory (RDTL) Chandigarh for failing identification and assay of Tofacitinib citrate calculated as Tofacitinib.

However, the same batch has now also been classified as “purportedly spurious” in CDSCO’s revised alert, with Cipla informing that it did not manufacture this batch.

The batch in question — Batch No. 4F30009, with a manufacturing date of May 2024 and expiry of April 2026 — carries Cipla’s name on the label. However, the company has officially clarified that it did not manufacture this particular batch.

‘The actual manufacturer (as per label claim) has informed that the impugned batch of the product has not been manufactured by them and that it is a spurious drug.’ the CDSCO stated in its revised alert.

The matter is now under active investigation. While the product is currently listed as “purportedly spurious,” the final classification will depend on the outcome of the ongoing inquiry.

Also Read:Drug Alert: 41 Drug samples including Cipla’s TOFAJAK tablets fail To Qualify CDSCO Test

Drug Alert for the Month of November–2024 (Revised)

List of Drugs, Medical Devices, Vaccines and Cosmetics declared as Not of Standard Quality/Spurious/Adulterated/Misbranded for the Month of November–2024 (Revised)

S.

No

Name of Drugs/medical device/cosmetics

Batch No.

Date of

Manufacture

Date of Expiry

Manufactured

by

Reason for failure

Drawn By

Firms’s reply

Remarks

40.

Tofacitinib Tablets IP 5 mg (TOFAJAK TABLETS)

4F30009

05/2024

04/2026

Under Investigation

Identification and Assay of Tofacitinib citrate calculated as Tofacitinib

Drugs Control Officer, Gurugram

The actual manufacturer (as per label claim) has informed that the impugned batch of the product has not been manufactured by them and that it is a spurious drug.

The product is purported to be spurious; however, the same is subject to outcome of investigation.

Also Read:Cipla gets CDSCO Panel nod to study Revefenacin Inhalation solution

To view the official notice, click the link below:

https://medicaldialogues.in/pdf_upload/revise-list-drug-alert-november-2024-285573.pdf

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How does consciousness work? Dueling scientists test two big theories but find no winner

“Theories are like toothbrushes,” it’s sometimes said. “Everybody has their own and nobody wants to use anybody else’s.”

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Q&A: Two decades of research lead to treatment for rare, painful skin condition

Patients with severe dystrophic epidermolysis bullosa, or EB, have skin so fragile, the slightest touch can lead to blistering and, eventually, large, open wounds that never heal, causing immense pain.

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Skin-to-skin contact improves breastfeeding but not cognitive outcomes in very preterm infants: Clinical trial

Researchers led by the Trondheim University Hospital in Norway report that two hours of immediate skin-to-skin contact between mothers and very preterm infants after birth does not improve cognitive, motor, or language development by age 2 to 3 years. Infants receiving the intervention did show significantly improved breastfeeding outcomes.

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Odisha Govt appoints Principals, Superintendents at 2 Medical College Hospitals

Bhubaneswar: The Odisha Health and Family Welfare Department has appointed four doctors as the new principals and superintendents in Sundargarh Medical College and Hospital and Saheed Rendo Majhi Medical College at Bhawanipatna, respectively.  

A notification issued by the department in this regard on May 1st mentioned Professor Subhra Ghosh as the new Dean and Principal of the Government Medical College in Sundargarh. She is currently serving as a professor in the Department of Obstetrics and Gynaecology at Shree Jagannath Medical College and Hospital, Puri.

Similarly, Sarada Prasanna Swain, a professor of psychiatry at SCB Medical College and Hospital in Cuttack, has been appointed as the Superintendent of Government Medical College and Hospital at Sundargarh.

Also read- Gujarat appoints 4 senior doctors in Govt Medical Colleges hospitals

Professor Krishna Kar, who teaches community medicine at SCBMCH, Cuttack, has been appointed as the new Dean and Principal of Saheed Rendo Majhi Medical College in Bhawanipatna.

Alongside him, Professor Lity Mohanty from the pathology department of SCBMCH will take charge as the new Superintendent of the Bhawanipatna Medical College and Hospital, reports Sangbad English.

Medical Dialogues had previously reported that during a session of the Odisha Legislative Assembly, Health Minister Mukesh Mahaling announced that the State Government has directed the Odisha Public Service Commission (OPSC) to begin the recruitment process for 5,822 doctors.

Previously, the Odisha Cabinet announced to send a requisition to the Odisha Public Service Commission (OPSC) for the recruitment of over 5,000 medical officers, including 124 dentists, without delay to address the ongoing shortage of doctors in government hospitals.

Additionally, it approved the newly formulated Odisha Medical & Health Services (Method of Recruitment and Conditions of Service) Amendment Rules, 2025, following the decision to amend the Odisha Medical & Health Services (Method of Recruitment and Conditions of Service) Rules, 2017.

Also read- Odisha cabinet nod to amend OMHS Rules, to recruit over 5000 doctors

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Doctors Say ‘No’ to NMR? RTI Exposes abysmal state of National Medical Register

New Delhi: Even though eight months have passed since the National Medical Register (NMR) was launched, NMC has till now received only 10,411 applications for doctors’ registration on NMR, revealed the data obtained through a recent Right to Information (RTI) application.

Further, NMC’s response to the RTI application filed by Dr. KV Babu revealed that among these 10,411 applications, till date, 10,237 applications have not been approved, and these also include 139 applications where a query was raised. The Commission also informed that altogether 02 applications have been rejected so far.

Earlier this year, the Union Minister of State for Health Smt Anupriya Patel informed the Parliament that India has altogether 13,86,150 registered allopathic doctors. Therefore, less than 1% of the registered doctors have so far applied for their registration on NMR. On the other hand, 10237 out of 10411 applications- meaning 98.32% of applications for NMR registration have not been approved yet.

Commenting on this, Dr. KV Babu, a health activist from Kerala, who filed the RTI, told Medical Dialogues, “NMC should understand the implications of 98% non approval of the applications and just more than 10,000 applicants of over 13 lakhs Indian doctors have even applied for the registration in about 8 months time. More the number of applications are non-approved, less the number of new applications! The situation was brought to the attention of the NMC chairman in October 2024 itself. Instead of rectifying the mistake, NMC is continuing the ineffective method of NMR registration & this will be a disaster.”

NMR is a dynamic database and will be a central repository of all registered doctors, in which their authenticity is verified by Aadhaar IDs. All the MBBS doctors who are registered on Indian Medical Register (IMR) have to register again on the NMR, the NMC said in a public notice recently, and added that all medical colleges/institutions, state medical councils (SMCs) are inter-linked on the portal.

Launching the NMR portal on 23.08.2024, the Apex Medical Commission has asked the registered medical practitioners to enter their details on the portal. The portal was envisioned as a transformative initiative to centralize and streamline the registration of doctors across India.

However, after the commencement of the registration process, doctors started complaining about the problems that they faced while trying to register themselves on this new centralized portal.

Earlier, Dr. Babu had also raised the problems faced by the doctors in registering on NMR. He had previously explained how the doctors had to wait for a long period of time to get the NMR registration despite getting approval from the concerned State Medical Councils.

He had informed that his own NMR registration could not be processed at NMC as it was returned four times with irrelevant queries. These included objections regarding the names of his university and state medical council, as well as discrepancies between the name on his Aadhaar card and his degree certificate.

Raising the problems faced by the doctors to register on NMR, Dr. Babu had written to the NMC Chairperson as well and he had suggested the Commission to automatically enrol the doctors once the registration number and degree certificates were verified by the SMC.

Previous RTI applications filed by the doctor had revealed that till December 2024, the names of only 284 doctors were included in NMR. Later, the Commission informed that till January 14, 2025, only 8598 applications were filed by Registered Medical Practitioners for NMR enrolment. Among these 6.198 applications were not approved.

Also Read: Only 8,598 out of 13 Lakh Doctors Applied to Register in NMR- RTI Reveals Shocking Data

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NBE Releases DNB Post Diploma 2025 Counselling Schedule, check out seat matrix, guidelines

New Delhi- Through a recent notice, the National Board of Examinations in Medical Sciences (NBEMS) has released the schedule for the Online Centralised Merit-Based Counselling- DNB (Post Diploma) 2025 admission Session.

As per the schedule, the said counselling will commence from 8th and will end on 4th June, 2025.

Below is the complete schedule-

SCHEDULE

S.NO

COUNSELLING PROCESS

SCHEDULE

FIRST ROUND

SECOND ROUND

1

Registration for Counseling.

8th to 12th May, 2025 (till 05:00 PM).

No new Registration

2

Filling up options/ choices of available seats.

8th to 12th May, 2025 (till 05:00 PM)

23rd to 26th May, 2025 (till 05:00 PM)

3

Processing of Allotment.

13th May, 2025

27th May, 2025

4

Result of Allotment.

14th May, 2025

28th May, 2025

5

Payment of First Year Course Fee.

14th to 19th May, 2025 (till 05:00 PM)

28th May to 4th June, 2025 (till 05:00 PM)

6

Physical Joining at the allotted hospital.

14th to 19th May, 2025 (till 05:00 PM)

28th May to 4th June, 2025 (till 05:00 PM)

Registration & filling of choices has to be done through the official website of NBE. Therefore, following steps must be completed to participate in the counseling-

1 Payment of registration fee for online counseling.

2 Upload prescribed documents.

3 Choice filling.

4 Lock and Confirm the choices filled.

Meanwhile, it is to be noted that the allotment of seats in the Counseling is subject to the fulfilment of prescribed eligibility criteria and production of prescribed credential in original at the time of joining the institute allotted.

To view the notice, click the link below

https://medicaldialogues.in/pdf_upload/noticejpg-285254.pdf

In this regard, NBEMS has also released the Handbook for the Centralized Merit Based Counseling for Admission to Post Diploma DNB Courses 2025 Admission Session. The handbook contains important details such as eligibility, application process, documents, etc.

PROCEDURE FOR REGISTRATION WITH NBEMS FOR DNB POST DIPLOMA COURSES AFTER JOINING IN THE ALLOTTED INSTITUTE

1 Candidate who has Joined the allotted seat shall be referred as NBEMS trainee.

2 The candidates will upload the documents at NBEMS website and the hospital will also update the joining status at the same website.

3 NBEMS has a web portal called Online Portal for Joining and Registration (OPJR). Candidates as well as the concerned Hospitals/ Institutes are required to complete the Joining as well as Registration formalities after conclusion of all rounds of counseling. OPJR shall not be accessible for both candidates as well as institutes during the ongoing process of counseling.

4 Subsequent to conclusion of counseling, the candidate and hospital shall be able to access the Online Portal for Joining and Registration (OPJR) through web-link where they shall be required to complete the joining and registration formalities.

5 A detailed notice for Self-Appraisal shall be published after conclusion of Counseling for Joined candidates to register themselves as trainees with NBEMS. The joining of a candidate for a course is considered complete only after successful submission of Self-Appraisal to NBEMS both by the candidate and its training institution.

ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA FOR PARTICIPATION IN THE CENTRALIZED MERIT BASED COUNSELING FOR ADMISSION TO POST DIPLOMA DNB COURSES-2025 ADMISSION SESSION

1 Candidates must be in possession of Post Graduate Diploma Medical Qualification Pass Certificate/ Provisional# Pass Certificate in eligible feeder specialty for respective DNB (Post Diploma) course as mentioned in the Information Bulletin for DNB PDCET 2025.

2 Candidates must have qualified the Post Graduate Diploma Qualification in the eligible feeder specialty on or before 31st January, 2025.

3 The Post Graduate Diploma Medical Qualification in the eligible feeder specialty must be recognized as per the provisions of the NMC Act 2019 and the repealed Indian Medical Council Act 1956, Govt. of India.

4 Candidates should possess Permanent Registration Certificate of MBBS qualification.

5 Candidates must have appeared in DNB PDCET 2025.

6 Candidates already pursuing a Postgraduate course (MD/ MS/ DNB/ PG Diploma) are not eligible for admission to DNB (Post Diploma) courses for the entire duration prescribed for the course already joined by them earlier. This shall be irrespective of their resignation or discontinuation from the said course due to any reason.

7 Candidates who have qualified Post Graduate Diploma Medical Qualification after 31st January, 2025 are ineligible to participate in the counseling for admission to DNB (Post Diploma) – 2025 Admission Session. Any requests for admission to DNB (Post Diploma) – 2025 Admission Session from the candidates who have qualified Post Graduate Diploma after 31st January, 2025 shall be summarily rejected.

8 Candidates possessing Diploma qualifications awarded by the College of Physicians and Surgeons (CPS), Mumbai other than DPB, DCH and DGO are NOT eligible to join DNB (Post Diploma) Course.

9 In an event ineligibility is detected at any stage, NBEMS reserves its rights to cancel the result/candidature for DNB PDCET 2025 of such candidates for DNB PDCET 2025, even if the result has been declared or candidate has participated in the counseling or admitted to the DNB (Post Diploma) Course 2025 admission session.

10 Candidates who join DNB (Post Diploma) Course in 2025 admission session, after opting a confirmed seat through DNB Post Diploma Centralized Merit based Online Counseling 2025 session shall not be eligible to join any other DNB course for the entire duration of their DNB Post Diploma Course (i.e. 2 years). This shall be irrespective of their resignation or discontinuation from the course due to any reason.

11 Jurisdiction for disputes, if any, shall be at New Delhi only.

LIST OF PRESCRIBED DOCUMENTS TO BE UPLOADED AT THE TIME OF REGISTRATION IN THE 1ST ROUND OF COUNSELING

1 MBBS Degree certificate.

2 Post Graduate Diploma Medical Qualification Pass certificate/ Provisional Pass Certificate* in eligible feeder specialty for respective DNB (Post Diploma) course as mentioned in the Information Bulletin for DNB PDCET 2025.

3 Permanent Registration certificate issued by MCI/ State Medical Council for registration of MBBS qualification.

4 Proof of having passed the Post graduate diploma final examination on or before 31st January, 2025.

5 Screenshot of NMC website confirming that the Post Graduate Diploma Medical Qualification is recognized as per NMC Act, 2019 and the repealed Indian Medical Council Act 1956.

6 Matriculation/ High School/ Higher Secondary Certificate as a proof of Date of Birth.

7 SC/ST/PWD/OBC/EWS certificate issued by competent authority, if applicable. Caste certificate must be issued by competent authority. The sub caste should tally with the Central Govt. list.

8 Valid Government issued Identity proof with Photograph.

9 Any other relevant certificate or document such as NOC or relieving order etc.

To view the Handbook, click the link below

https://medicaldialogues.in/pdf_upload/handbookjpg-285259.pdf

SEAT MATRIX

Along with this, NBEMS has also released the Indicative Seat Matrix for admission to DNB Post Diploma courses for the 2025 Admission Session. As per the seat matrix, a total of 2197 seats are vacant across 14 DNB Post Diploma courses.

S.NO

SPECIALITY

TOTAL NO. OF SEATS

1

Anaesthesiology.

516

2

Dermatology, Venereology and Leprosy .

14

3

Family Medicine.

18

4

Nuclear Medicine.

14

5

Obstetrics and Gynaecology.

281

6

Orthopaedics.

378

7

Otorhinolaryngology (ENT).

57

8

Paediatrics.

280

9

Pathology.

74

10

Physical Medicine and Rehabilitation.

3

11

Psychiatry.

22

12

Radiation Oncology .

75

13

Radio Diagnosis.

272

14

Respiratory Medicine.

193

TOTAL

2197

To view the seat matrix, click the link below

https://medicaldialogues.in/pdf_upload/nbems2025711534894jpg-285334.pdf

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Fake Doctor Busted in Dimapur after years of fradulent practice

Dimapur: A fake medical practitioner from Dimapur, who had been fraudulently practising as a doctor for years without possessing any valid medical qualifications, has been arrested by the Nagaland Police.   

The man was detained following a formal complaint lodged by the Nagaland Medical Council. The council alleged that the fake doctor had been treating patients without the mandatory registration under the Medical Council Act 2014, Chapter III, Section 16(6).

Also Read: Fake orthopaedic surgeon arrested for using forged degrees, Fraudulent IDs

In a statement, the police said that the accused, a resident of NST Colony, was found to be posing as a doctor in the commercial hub of Dimapur, reports India Today NE.

Following the complaint, police conducted a preliminary inquiry, which confirmed that the accused neither held a recognized medical degree nor was registered with the State Medical Council — a legal requirement for anyone practising medicine in India. 

Also Read: Fake Cardiologist booked for culpable homicide in Chhattisgarh Ex-Speaker’s 2006 Death

As per the recent media reports by TOI, during the investigation, Lotha claimed to have obtained an MBBS degree from Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences in Bengaluru in 2014. However, official records from the institution revealed that he had enrolled in 2008 but had failed to complete even one year of studies. Sophie said Lotha had befriended medical professionals and had been “smartly” operating under the guise of a qualified doctor.

Authorities have registered a case under relevant sections of the law related to impersonation and illegal medical practice. Investigations are underway to assess the full scope of the accused’s activities, including any medical treatments administered and potential harm caused to unsuspecting patients.

In light of the incident, the Dimapur Police have issued a public advisory, urging residents to exercise caution and verify the credentials of medical professionals before seeking treatment. They stressed the importance of checking whether a practitioner has a valid State Medical Council registration number.

According to the India Today NE, appealing to the public to report any suspicious individuals who may be practising medicine without proper documentation, the police said, “This is a collective responsibility to ensure a safe and trusted medical environment in our community.”

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