Health Bulletin 30/ March/ 2024

Here are the top health news for the day:

Essential medicine prices to rise up from April 1st

A slight hike in the price of essential medicines, such as painkillers, antibiotics, and anti-infectives, is set to take place on April 1st, in line with the change observed in the Wholesale Price Index (WPI) between 2022 and 2023.

Through a recent notification, the National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA) has declared to permit the pharmaceutical sector to increase the Maximum Retail Price (MRP) of scheduled formulations by approximately 0.00551% at the start of the fiscal year 2024-25, considering the change observed in the Wholesale Price Index (WPI) between 2022 and 2023.

For more information, click on the link below:

NEET MDS 2024 results set for release on April 18th

As per the official schedule of the National Board of Examination in Medical Sciences (NBEMS), the National Eligibility Cum Entrance Test For Master Of Dental Surgery (NEET MDS) 2024 result will be declared on April 18, 2024.

Candidates can check their NEET MDS Result 2024 through candidate login and download the result from the official website of NBE after the declaration of the result.

For more information, click on the link below:

 7th NEET aspirant suicide reported since January 2024

The coaching town of Kota has once again in spotlight as yet another NEET aspirant allegedly took her own life, marking the seventh suicide by a coaching student since the beginning of this year.

Somya Kurmi, a 19-year-old NEET aspirant was found hanging from the ceiling fan of her PG room late Wednesday night, Deputy Superintendent of Police Rajesh Tailor informed PTI. This heartbreaking incident comes just a day after the discovery of another NEET aspirant, Mohammad Urooj (20), who was found dead at his PG accommodation in Vigyan Nagar.

For more information, click on the link below:


Secondhand e-cigarette vapor may pose risk to children like secondhand smoke: Study

As the debate around the safety of electronic cigarettes continues to swirl, a recent pilot study has shed light on a concerning aspect: the potential impact of secondhand vapor on children. Presented at the National Association of Pediatric Nurse Practitioners conference, the study conducted by researchers at Emory University delved into the effects of e-cigarette exposure on children aged 4 through 12. What they discovered raises alarms about the potential health risks posed by vaping around kids.

The study, involving 48 parent-child pairs, examined the levels of metabolites linked to chemicals found in e-cigarettes in children regularly exposed to vaping. Comparing these findings with a control group of non-exposed children, researchers identified higher levels of metabolites associated with disruptions in dopamine levels, inflammation, and cellular damage due to oxidative stress. While the study serves as a preliminary exploration, it sets the stage for further investigation into the long-term health implications of secondhand e-cigarette vapor exposure in children.

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123 Vacancies For Assistant Professor Post At UPSC In Health Ministry, Applications Open

New Delhi: The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) has invited online applications for the Specialist Grade III Post Assistant Professor in the Department of Health and Family Welfare, Ministry of Health & Family Welfare on permanently in different dept.

UPSC is India’s premier central recruiting agency. It is responsible for appointments to and examinations for All India services and group A & group B of Central services.

UPSC Vacancy Details:

Total no. of Vacancies:- 123

The Vacancies are in the departments of Anaesthesiology, Cardio Vascular and Thoracic Surgery, Neonatology, Neurology, Obstetrics & Gynaecology, and Physical Medicine and Rehabilitation.

Last Date of Application: 11th April 2024.

For more details about Qualifications, Age, Pay Allowance, and much more, click on the given link:

HOW TO APPLY?

i) Candidates must apply online through the website http://www.upsconline.nic.in. Applications received through any other mode would not be accepted and summarily rejected.

ii) Candidates must upload the documents/certificates in support of all the claims made by them in the application like, Date of Birth, Experience (preferably in prescribed format), Desirable Qualification(s) etc. or any other information, separately against each claim in pdf file in such a way that the file size does not exceed 1 MB for the respective aforesaid modules and 2 MB for the “UPLOAD OTHER DOCUMENT” module and is legible when a printout taken. For that purpose, the applicant may scan the documents/certificates in 200 dpi grey scale. Documents like Pay Slip, Resume, Appointment Letter, Relieving Letter, Un-signed Experience Certificate etc. must not be uploaded in the Document Upload Module:-

a) Matriculation/10th Standard or equivalent certificate indicating date of birth, or mark sheet of Matriculation/10th Standard or equivalent issued by Central/State Board indicating Date of Birth in support of claim of age. Where date of birth is not available in certificate/mark sheets, issued by concerned Educational Boards, School leaving certificate indicating Date of Birth (in case of Tamil Nadu& Kerala).

b) Degree/Diploma certificate as proof of educational qualification claimed. In the absence of Degree/Diploma certificate, provisional certificate along with mark sheets pertaining to all the academic years.

c) Order/ letter in respect of equivalent Educational Qualifications claimed, indicating the Authority (with number and date) under which it has been so treated, in respect

of equivalent clause in Essential Qualifications, if a candidate is claiming a particular qualification as equivalent qualification as per the requirement of advertisement.

d) Certificate(s) in the prescribed proforma from the Head(s) of Organization(s)/Department(s) for the entire experience claimed, clearly mentioning the duration of employment (date, month & year) indicating the basic pay and consolidated pay. The certificate(s) should also mention the nature of duties performed/experience obtained in the post(s) with duration(s). Experience Certificate should be issued in prescribed format relevant to the post. Experience certificate not in prescribed proforma but containing all the details as mentioned above would be considered on merits by the Commission.

e) Caste certificate by candidate seeking reservation as SC/ ST/ OBC, in the prescribed proforma from the competent authority indicating clearly the candidate’s Caste, the Act/ Order under which the Caste is recognized as SC/ ST/ OBC and the village/ town the candidate is ordinarily a resident of.

f) A declaration in the prescribed format by candidate seeking reservation as OBC, that he/she does not belong to the creamy layer on the crucial date, in addition to the community certificate (OBC). Unless specified otherwise, the prescribed closing date for receipt of Online Recruitment Application for the post is to be treated as crucial date.

g) Certificate of Disability in prescribed proforma issued by the competent authority to Persons with Benchmark Disabilities (PwBD) eligible for appointment to the post on the basis of prescribed standards of Medical Fitness. The Competent Authority to issue Certificate of Disability shall be a Medical Board duly constituted by the Central or a State Government. The Central/ State Government may constitute Medical Board(s) consisting of at least three members out of which at least one shall be a specialist in the particular field for assessing Locomotor/ Cerebral / Visual / Hearing disability, as the case may be.

h) Documentary support for any other claim(s) made.

Note: If any document/ certificate furnished is in a language other than Hindi or English, a transcript of the same duly attested by a Gazetted officer or notary is to be uploaded.

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USFDA approves Gilead Sciences Vemlidy sNDA for chronic hepatitis B virus infection in pediatric patients as young as Six

Foster City: Gilead Sciences, Inc. has announced that the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) has approved the supplemental new drug application (sNDA) for Vemlidy (tenofovir alafenamide) 25 mg tablets as a once-daily treatment for chronic hepatitis B virus (HBV) infection in pediatric patients six years of age and older and weighing at least 25 kg with compensated liver disease.

Vemlidy is a targeted prodrug of tenofovir that was approved by the FDA in 2016 as a once-daily treatment for adults with chronic HBV infection with compensated liver disease. In 2022, the FDA approved Vemlidy for the treatment of chronic HBV infection in pediatric patients 12 years of age and older with compensated liver disease. Vemlidy is recommended as a preferred or first-line treatment for adults with chronic HBV with compensated liver disease by the American Association for the Study of Liver Diseases (AASLD) and European Association for the Study of the Liver (EASL) guidelines.

“Chronic hepatitis B can have a significant and lasting impact on the health of children. If left untreated, hepatitis B can lead to liver cirrhosis and liver cancer,” said Chaun-Hao Lin, MD, Associate Professor of Clinical Pediatrics Krek School of Medicine of USC. “As a clinician, I am well aware of the critical importance of promptly treating this disease to avoid possible complications and liver damage. The clinical trial demonstrated that tenofovir alafenamide may represent an effective treatment option for children as young as six years old affected by this chronic disease.”

Vemlidy’s approval in this pediatric patient population is supported by Week 96 data from a Phase 2 clinical trial (Trial 1092) comparing treatment with Vemlidy 25 mg to placebo among 18 treatment-naïve and treatment-experienced patients aged 6 to less than 12 years weighing at least 25 kg (Cohort 2, Group 1). Participants in the Vemlidy group and in the placebo group who switched to open-label Vemlidy after Week 24 demonstrated progressive increases in the rates of virological suppression through Week 96 overall and within both study cohorts (children and adolescents).

“The expanded indication for Vemlidy for the treatment of children as young as six years old is a testament to the safety, tolerability and efficacy profile of this therapy,” said Frank Duff, MD, Senior Vice President, Virology Therapeutic Area Head, Gilead Sciences. “Effective and tolerable options for children require our best science and a dedicated focus. The work of our Gilead Pediatric Center of Excellence is responsible for coordinating pediatric clinical trials for treatments for cancer, HIV, hepatitis B, and COVID-19 and we will continue our research to help address unmet treatment needs for children.”

Vemlidy has a boxed warning in its product label regarding post-treatment severe acute exacerbation of hepatitis B. 

Hepatitis B (HBV) is a serious disease that attacks the liver and can cause chronic (lifelong) infection, cirrhosis of the liver, liver cancer, and death in up to a third of patients. Hepatitis B is spread through infected blood or body fluids, sexual contact, injection drug use, or perinatally from mother to child. Early symptoms may include loss of appetite, fever, generalized aches and pains, fatigue, itching, urticaria (hives), and joint pain. The disease is often asymptomatic, which may lead to undiagnosed individuals. Later symptoms may include nausea and vomiting, halitosis (bad breath), dark brown urine, jaundice (yellowing of the skin and eyes), and right-sided abdominal pain (especially with external pressure or palpitation).

Read also: Gilead Sciences completes acquisition of CymaBay Therapeutics for USD 4.3 billion

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Doctor calls NEET, JEE exams useless, Unacademy CEO reacts

In the realm of education discourse, Unacademy CEO Gaurav Munjal sparked a lively debate on Twitter concerning the efficacy of standardized exams like JEE, NEET, and UPSC. After facing criticism from a Mumbai-based doctor regarding the value of such exams, Munjal defended their merit, citing their role in transforming lives and maintaining fairness in the system. However, his response ignited further discussion among Twitter users.

Some users echoed Munjal’s sentiments, highlighting the importance of merit-based admissions and the role of standardized exams in ensuring fairness. Others criticized the exams, arguing that they are inherently biased and fail to accurately gauge individual abilities. Amidst the exchange of opinions, one user suggested refraining from engaging with Munjal’s critic, emphasizing the significance of the burgeoning field of educational technology (Edtech).

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MP DME Releases Allotment Lists for MPMC-FMG Counselling December 2023

Madhya Pradesh-  Following the Madhya Pradesh Medical Council-Foreign Medical Graduates (MPMC-FMG) Clinical Clerkship/Internship Counseling process that is going on in the state, the Madhya Pradesh Directorate of Medical Education (MP DME) has recently released the allotment list for the MPMC-FMG Counselling December 2023 session.

ALLOTMENT LIST

A total of 581 candidates’ names are mentioned in the allotment list of MPMC-FMG Counseling in December 2023. The list includes Common rank, MP State rank, FMGE Roll no, the score obtained, candidate name, gender, MP Domicile, allotted Institute type and name, allotted group name and college details.

ALLOTMENT CLOSING OPENING OF MPMC-FMG COUNSELLING DECEMBER 2023

The list of allotment result of MPMC-FMG Counseling December 2023 contains the names of a total of 8 permitted colleges out of which 4 are government colleges and 4 colleges are private institutions and all these 8 colleges come under Group-A. The list includes Institute code, type and name, allotted group name and college name, opening and closing common rank, opening and closing MP state rank, opening and closing score, MO Domicile status and total allotment. The total allotted seats in these 8 colleges is 581.

LIST

S.NO

INSTITUE NAME

TOTAL ALLOTMENT

1

BIRSA MUNDA GOVERNMENT MEDICAL COLLEGE SHAHDOL

8

2

CHHINDWARA INSTITUTE OF MEDICAL SCIENCES CHHINDWARA

8

3

GOVERNMENT MEDICAL COLLEGE SATNA

150

4

SHRIMANT RAJMATA VIJAYARAJE SCINDIA MEDICAL COLLEGE SHIVPURI

8

5

LNCT MEDICAL COLLEGE AND SEWAKUNJ HOSPITAL INDORE

150

6

MAHAVEER INSTITUTE OF MEDICAL SCIENCE AND RESEARCH BHOPAL

150

7

RAM KRISHNA MEDICAL COLLEGE HOSPITAL AND RESEARCH CENTRE BHOPAL

83

8

SUKH SAGAR MEDICAL COLLEGE AND HOSPITAL JABALPUR

23

Earlier, MPDME had also released the merit list, where a total of 593 candidates are included in the merit list of the candidates registered for MPMC-FMG Clinical Clerkship/Internship Counseling for December 2023. The list includes General Rank, MP State Rank, FMGE Roll Number, Candidate Name, Gender, MP Domicile, Score and Result.

To view all the three lists, click the link below

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Medical Bulletin 30/ March/ 2024

Here are the top medical news for the day:

Are eggs bad for your heart?

Results from a prospective, controlled trial presented at the American College of Cardiology’s Annual Scientific Session revealed that over a four-month period, cholesterol levels were similar among people who ate eggs most days of the week compared with those who didn’t eat eggs.

Eggs are a common and relatively inexpensive source of protein and dietary cholesterol. Whether you like your eggs sunny-side up, hard-boiled or scrambled, many hesitate to eat them amid concerns that eggs may raise cholesterol levels and be bad for heart health.

“We know that cardiovascular disease is, to some extent, mediated through risk factors like high blood pressure, high cholesterol and increased BMI and diabetes. Dietary patterns and habits can have a notable influence on these and there’s been a lot of conflicting information about whether or not eggs are safe to eat, especially for people who have or are at risk for heart disease. This is a small study, but it gives us reassurance that eating eggs is OK with regard to lipid effects over four months, even among a more high-risk population,” said Nina Nouhravesh, MD, a research fellow at the Duke Clinical Research Institute in Durham, North Carolina, and the study’s lead author.

A total of 140 patients with or at high risk for cardiovascular disease were enrolled in the PROSPERITY trial, which aimed to assess the effects of eating 12 or more eggs a week versus a non-egg diet (consuming less than two eggs a week) on HDL- and LDL-cholesterol, as well as other key markers of cardiovascular health over a four-month study period. Secondary endpoints included lipid, cardiometabolic and inflammatory biomarkers and levels of vitamins and minerals. Patients had in-person clinic visits at the start of the study and visits at one and four months to take vital signs and have bloodwork done.

Results showed a -0.64 mg/dL and a -3.14 mg/dL reduction in HDL-cholesterol (“good” cholesterol) and LDL cholesterol (“bad” cholesterol), respectively, in the egg group. While these differences weren’t statistically significant, the differences suggested that eating 12 eggs each week had no adverse effect on blood cholesterol. In terms of secondary endpoints, researchers observed a numerical reduction in total cholesterol, LDL particle number, another lipid biomarker, high-sensitivity troponin (a marker of heart damage), and insulin resistance scores in the fortified egg group, while vitamin B increased.

“While this is a neutral study, we did not observe adverse effects on biomarkers of cardiovascular health and there were signals of potential benefits of eating eggs that warrant further investigation in larger studies as they are more hypothesis generating here,” said Nouhravesh, explaining that subgroup analyses revealed numerical increases in HDL cholesterol and reductions in LDL cholesterol in patients 65 years or older and those with diabetes in the 12-egg group compared with those eating fewer than two eggs.

Reference: Prospective Evaluation of Fortified Eggs Related to Improvement in the Biomarker Profile for Your Health: Primary Results from the PROSPERITY Trial, American College of Cardiology’s Annual Scientific Session

Can sweeteners raise your appetite level?

A study published in the journal EBioMedicine revealed that replacing sugar with artificial and natural sweeteners in foods does not make people hungrier – and also helps to reduce blood sugar levels.

The research trial, led by the University of Leeds in collaboration with The Rhône-Alpes Research Center for Human Nutrition, found that consuming food containing sweeteners produced a similar reduction in appetite sensations and appetite-related hormone responses as sugary foods – and provides some benefits such as lowering blood sugar, which may be particularly important in people at risk of developing type 2 diabetes. However, the use of sweeteners in place of sugar in foods can be controversial due to conflicting reports about their potential to increase appetite.

“Simply restricting sugar from foods without substitution may negatively impact its taste or increase sweet cravings, resulting in difficulties sticking to a low-sugar diet. Replacing sugars with sweeteners and sweetness enhancers in food products is one of the most widely used dietary and food manufacturing strategies to reduce sugar intake and improve the nutritional profile of commercial foods and beverages.” said lead author Catherine Gibbons, Associate Professor in the University of Leeds’ School of Psychology.

The study examined the effects of consuming biscuits with different sweeteners on 53 overweight or obese adults. The trial included three two-week periods where participants ate biscuits with sugar, natural sweetener Stevia, or artificial sweetener Neotame. Baseline measurements were taken before and after consuming the biscuits, including glucose, insulin, and appetite-related hormones. Participants also rated their appetite and food preferences.

The results revealed that the two sweetener types showed no differences in appetite or endocrine responses compared to sugar, but insulin levels measured over two hours after eating were reduced, as were blood sugar levels.

“The use of sweeteners and sweetness enhancers has received a lot of negative attention, including high profile publications linking their consumption with impaired glycaemic response, toxicological damage to DNA and increased risk of heart attack and stroke. These reports contribute to the current befuddlement concerning the safety of sweeteners and sweetness enhancers among the general public and especially people at risk of metabolic diseases. Our study provides crucial evidence supporting the day-to-day use of sweeteners and sweetness enhancers for body weight and blood sugar control.” said Finlayson.

Reference: Acute and two-week effects of Neotame, Stevia Rebaudioside M and sucrosesweetened biscuits on postprandial appetite and endocrine response in adults with overweight/obesity – a randomised crossover trial from the SWEET Consortium; Journal: EBioMedicine

Mental health may predict heart health in younger women, finds study

A new study presented at the American College of Cardiology’s Annual Scientific Session found that having anxiety or depression could accelerate the development of cardiovascular risk factors among young and middle-aged women.

Younger women are generally thought to have a low risk of heart disease, but new research urges clinicians to revisit that assumption, especially for women who suffer from certain mental health conditions and reported that younger women with anxiety or depression were nearly twice as likely to develop high blood pressure, high cholesterol or diabetes over a 10-year period compared with women who did not have these mental health conditions, putting them nearly on par with men of the same age in terms of heart disease risk.

“We often feel that young women are the ‘safe group’ with regards to cardiovascular disease because the incidence of cardiovascular disease is quite low due to the protective effects of estrogen in this group. But this study suggests that if a younger woman has depression or anxiety, we should start screening for cardiovascular risk factors to reduce the incidence of cardiovascular disease.” said Giovanni Civieri, MD, cardiologist, research fellow at Massachusetts General Hospital and Harvard Medical School, and the study’s lead author.

In the study, researchers analyzed health records of 71,214 people participating in the Mass General Brigham Biobank. People who had heart disease or who were diagnosed with anxiety or depression after the study began were excluded. They also examined the metabolic activity of stress-related brain regions in a subset of participants who had undergone brain scans.

The results revealed that during a 10-year follow-up, 38% of participants developed high blood pressure, high cholesterol, or diabetes. Those with pre-existing anxiety or depression were 55% more likely to develop these risk factors. Women under 50 with anxiety or depression were nearly twice as likely to develop cardiovascular risk factors. Despite young women typically having lower risk, anxiety and depression increased their relative risk significantly, possibly due to heightened stress-related neural activity.

“Once a young woman has depression or anxiety, her absolute risk is comparable to a young male. There is a sort of a catch-up phenomenon where depression and anxiety increase the risk that would otherwise be very low,” said Civieri

Reference: “Anxiety and Depression Increase Cardiovascular Disease Risk by Accelerating the Development of Risk Factors: Effects of Age and Sex; American College of Cardiology’s Annual Scientific Session

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Roche gets USFDA approval for molecular test to screen for malaria in blood donors

Basel: Roche has announced that the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) has approved the cobas Malaria test for use on the cobas 6800/8800 Systems. This approved test can aid healthcare professionals in reducing potential risks of patient infection from transfused blood products. The cobas Malaria test provides a highly sensitive and specific solution to help ensure that infected blood units are removed from the blood supply.

The cobas Malaria molecular test screens whole blood samples for the five main species of Plasmodium parasites that are known to cause human infection. The potential value of a molecular donor screening test for malaria is to improve both blood safety and availability. The test is intended for use in screening blood, organ and tissue donors.

“As the first FDA-approved blood screening test for malaria, this represents an important step forward in safeguarding the global supply of donated blood,” said Matt Sause, CEO of Roche Diagnostics. “The approval of cobas Malaria represents a significant advancement in malaria detection, offering healthcare professionals a reliable tool for donor screening and improving the safety of patients worldwide.”

Globally, a large number of possible donors are excluded from giving blood because of travel to or from residences in malaria-endemic areas. Existing microscopy and serological tests are not sensitive enough to reliably mitigate malaria transfusion risk.

The Roche Blood Safety Solutions offering provides the most comprehensive molecular, serological testing and automation options for donor screening in the US market.

In 2022, nearly half of the world’s population was at risk of malaria. While sub-Saharan Africa carries a disproportionately high share of the global malaria burden, the WHO regions of Southeast Asia, the Eastern Mediterranean, the Western Pacific, and the Americas also report significant numbers of cases and deaths. There were an estimated 249 million cases of malaria in 2022, and the estimated number of malaria deaths stood at 608,000. In 2022, the African Region was home to 94% and 95% of malaria cases and deaths, respectively. 

The test will be available in the United States at the end of Q2 2024. Approval in CE-marked countries is anticipated later this year.

The cobas Malaria test, a qualitative in vitro nucleic acid screening test, allows for direct detection of Plasmodium RNA and DNA in whole blood samples from individual human donors. The test, which can be performed with other routine blood donor screening tests, is designed for use on the cobas 6800/8800 Systems in the U.S. The test is not intended for use to diagnose Plasmodium infection, for use on cord blood samples or for use on cadaveric blood specimens. The test utilises the Roche Whole Blood Collection Tube, which allows for direct draw from the donor and is loaded directly onto the cobas 6800/8800 Systems for increased workflow efficiency.

Since 2014, the cobas 6800 and cobas 8800 Systems have established the new standard for routine molecular testing by delivering fully integrated, automated solutions that serve the areas of donor screening, infectious disease, sexual health, transplant, respiratory and antimicrobial stewardship. The current molecular donor screening assay menu includes cobas MPX, cobas DPX, cobas HEV, cobas WNV, cobas CHIKV/DENV, cobas Zika and cobas Babesia (not all tests are available in the U.S.).

Read also: Lonza to buy large-scale biologics Vacaville site from Roche for USD 1.2 billion

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Failure to diagnose, Delayed Treatment for Ruptured Ectopic Pregnancy: Gynecologist directed Rs 5 lakh Compensation

Chandigarh: The State Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (SCDRC), Punjab recently directed a Gynaecologist to compensate a patient, who lost her inability to conceive a child due to negligence in treatment.

It was alleged that while the patient had an ectopic pregnancy, the treating doctor could not diagnose the same and could not understand the USG report. Due to a delay in treatment, her Fallopian Tubes got damaged and they had to be removed by emergency surgery.

Earlier the District Consumer Court had directed the doctor to pay Rs 2.5 lakh compensation to the patient. However, while considering the plea, the State Commission enhanced the amount of compensation from Rs 2.5 lakh to Rs 5 lakh.

The matter goes back to 2018 when the patient approached the treating Gynaecologist after conception for a check-up. A few days after the first visit, the patient felt severe pain in her lower abdominal part and she decided to contact the doctor again in her hospital. The doctor prescribed Ultrasound, BETA HCG, +HB and all these tests were conducted accordingly. However, allegedly, the patient did not get any relief with the medicines prescribed by the doctor. When she questioned the doctor, another Ultrasound was conducted.

However, since the prescribed medicines could not cure her pain, the patient was admitted to CMC, Ludhiana. After diagnosing her condition, the treating doctors there removed both of her Fallopian Tubes as they had been damaged. The patient got to know that her problem was life-threatening and the treating Gynac had not operated in time and did not take care of her medical problem properly.

As a Gynecologist, she had allegedly failed to understand the problem as reported in Ultrasound Reports/Tests in which it had been shown that her tubes had ruptured and required immediate medical treatment to stop bleeding, the complainant stated.

While the first USG report mentioned “Large… 2) Halmo Peritonoeus, Ruptured Ectopic”, her condition was found to be aggravated in the second ultrasound. On the other hand, the medicines prescribed by the doctor were allegedly for Vitamins/Iron deficiency.

Therefore, the complainant argued that the doctor was negligent in her duty, failed to provide required treatment in time and was also unable to understand the Ultrasound Reports. Claiming that the said negligence of the doctor had put the life of the complainant in danger, and made the complainant suffer as she could not enjoy the happiness of motherhood in her future life, the patient filed the consumer complaint and demanded Rs 18 lakh as compensation and Rs 50,000 as litigation cost. The complainant also pointed out that she had to incur extra expenses for her treatment at CMC Ludhiana.

On the other hand, the doctor alleged that the patient came for follow-up late, and did not undergo the tests as required. Referring to the first USG report, which was conducted, the doctor pointed out that the report reflected that her uterus was bulky and large, also there was “large amount of fluid collection gathered in the pouch of Douglas, septal present. Impression:?? Hemoperitoneum (ruptured ectopic pregnancy).”

The doctor mentioned that the patient was hemodynamically stable and the ultrasound pelvis report was equivocal. To confirm it, BETA HCG was advised and the patient was prescribed medicines like Rebired & Polybion as routine treatment and not for tubal pregnancy. It was highlighted by the doctor that the BETA HCG report revealed a level of 835.6 mIU/ml (0.53) and her CBC levels in the report were Hb-9, TLC-9,200, and platelets-327000, which was normal.

After the check-up, she was advised Beta HCG to be repeated after 48 hours which was repeated and was not shown to the doctor on that day. Later when the patient came back with pain in the abdomen, tenderness was found in her lower abdomen. The patient was advised to undergo an ultrasound of abdomen again. However, she did not approach the doctor for follow-up. Therefore, the doctor pleaded that every act had been done diligently, prudently, with utmost care and as per medical ethics. Claiming that the complainant did not approach her regularly for follow-up, the doctor alleged that the sole negligence was of the patient herself and not the treating doctor,

The District Commission allowed the complaint and directed the doctor to pay Rs 2,50,000 as compensation to the complainant along with Rs 54,762 which she paid in the CMC, Ludhiana for her treatment. The doctor was ordered to pay another Rs 10,000 as litigation costs.

This order of the district consumer court was challenged both by the patient and the treating doctor before the State Commission Disputes Redressal Commission (SCDRC).

While considering the matter, the State Commission noted that initially after examining the patient, the doctor advised USG of the whole abdomen but on seeing the same, it was found that there was a crossed mark on the said advice/circle. Thereafter, the patient underwent Ultrasound Pelvis and the report mentioned, “ruptured ectopic pregnancy found”.

The complainant showed the report to the doctor and it was recorded in the Ultrasound report ‘kindly review’. After review, the Radiologist reiterated the same report. Thereafter, the complainant got her Beta Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (BHCG) test conducted, wherein her BHCG level was recorded as 835.6.

For the sake of having a second opinion, the Complainant had got another Ultrasound done from another Diagnostic Centre and again it was reported Pelvic Mass (CH. Ectopic Nodal Mass). However since the patient was suffering from severe pain and did not get any relief with the treatment provided by the treating doctor, the patient’s husband decided to admit her to CMC Ludhiana.

The complainant relied on the statement of the treating doctor at CMC Ludhiana, Dr. Goyal, who informed the District Consumer Court that after the diagnosis of the patient’s problem, it was necessary to conduct surgery immediately. In her statement, she further said that the surgery could have been conducted much before. 

In support of her allegations, the complainant also relied on an expert opinion provided by Dr. Kaur, who after going through the medical record stated that the USG dated 28.06.2018 confirmed haemoperitoneum corresponding to history and test as ruptured ectopic pregnancy. Further, she stated that at that time, the patient was required to be guided regarding the seriousness of her condition. She should have been referred to an expert in the field or immediate surgery should have been advised. In her opinion, not opting for immediate treatment for ruptured ectopic and unnecessary delay in treatment for 10 days was a clear-cut case of negligence.

Meanwhile, the State Commission noted that the treating doctor in her defence could only say that the complainant did not follow her instructions and did not approach her for follow-up. However, the doctor also admitted that she had given the medicines only for the symptoms and not for the treatment for “Raptured Ectopic Pregnancy”. She had further admitted that the medicines prescribed by her could not improve the condition of Ruptured Fallopian Tubes. She could not answer whether the ruptured ectopic pregnancy was a medical emergency.

Therefore, holding the treating doctor negligent, the State Commission observed,

“OP No.1-Doctor had admitted in her cross examination that medicines had been given only for symptoms and not for the treatment for RAPTURED ECTOPIC PREGNANCY. Therefore, it is clear that due to delay in dealing with the medical condition of the patient, OP No.1 had failed to take immediate necessary step in operating upon the Complainant which has resulted into the loss of the fallopian tubes of the patient, for which the OP No.1/Doctor is responsible. For the said action of the OP No.1, the Complainant/Respondent No.1 had been deprived of her happiness of becoming a mother. For the reasons and circumstances as mentioned above, it has clearly emerged that the treating Doctor i.e. OP No. 1 remained negligent and deficient in her services.”

With this observation, the State Commission upheld the order passed by the District Consumer Court and noted that the treating doctor could not tender any cogent evidence to exonerate herself from the allegations of medical negligence on her part. “Therefore, the order of the District Commission is upheld with respect to medical negligence of OP No.1, which has been proved beyond doubt,” the State Commission noted.

The Consumer Court also considered the appeal by the complainant for an enhancement of the amount of compensation. It was pleaded by the complainant that due to negligence by the doctor, she could not conceive naturally during her lifetime as her reproductive system had been affected due to the removal of her Fallopian Tubes. The only remedy left with her to become a mother is to undergo/try IVF Treatment. Therefore, the complainant pleaded to enhance the amount of compensation to Rs 18 lakh.

It was observed by the State Commission that “early treatment could have saved further damage to her Fallopian Tubes and the Complainant could have become mother with natural conception…Had the surgery been conducted well in time, the Complainant could have been saved from damage of her another Fallopian Tube.”

Noting that the only option left to the complainant to enjoy the happiness of motherhood was only IVF treatment, the Commission agreed that the amount of compensation awarded by the District Commission was on the lower side and it required to be enhanced.

Therefore, enhancing the amount of compensation, the State Commission noted, “The second appeal i.e. F.A. No. 96 of 2020 is partly allowed by enhancing the amount of compensation from Rs.2,50,000/- to Rs.5,00,000/-. Remaining part of the order of the District Commission is upheld.”

To view the order, click on the link below:

https://medicaldialogues.in/pdf_upload/punjab-state-commission-compensation-234986.pdf

Also Read: Suspected Ectopic Pregnancy admitted under Surgeon rather than gynecologist: Fortis slapped Rs 10 lakh for negligence

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Applications to Start/Increase PG Medical Seats: NMC Lists Down 102 Courses in 17 Medical Institutes

New Delhi: The Medical Assessment and Rating Board (MARB) of the National Medical Commission (NMC) processed 102 more online applications for starting new postgraduate medical courses or increasing seats in PG medical courses for the academic year 2024-2025.

Processing 102 more online applications for starting new postgraduate medical courses or increasing seats in PG medical courses for the academic year 2024-2025, the Medical Assessment and Rating Board (MARB) of the National Medical Commission (NMC) has sent communications in this regard to the concerned 17 medical colleges or institutions.

Among these 102 applications, 23 applications were by medical institutes for starting new medical colleges and 79 applications were for increasing the number of PG medical seats.

Previously, the Apex Medical Commission had sent communications in different phases for more such applications through notices dated 11th March 2024, 12th March 2024, 15th March 2024, 21st March 2024, 22nd March 2024, and 27th March 2024.

These communications have been sent through the email IDs (as mentioned in the online applications) to the concerned medical institutes/colleges for information and necessary action within the stipulated timeline.

In this regard, NMC in its recent notice dated 28.03.2024 mentioned, “In continuation of MARB’s Public Notice of even number dated 11th March 2024, 12th March 2024, 15th March 2024, 21st March 2024, 22nd March 2024 and 27th March 2024 with reference to applications from medical institutions for start or increase of PG courses/seats, it is informed that communications in respect of 102 more online applications (for starting of New PG Medical courses and Increase of seats in PG Medical courses for the Academic Year : 2024-25) have been sent through the email IDs (as mentioned in online applications) to the Medical Institutions/Colleges concerned for information and necessary action by them within the stipulated timeline. A list containing application number of each of the aforesaid 102 more online applications is attached with this Public Notice for general information.”

Medical Dialogues had earlier reported that MARB received a total of 1675 applications including 1010 applications for the start of PG courses and 665 applications for the increase of PG seats in existing medical colleges for the AY 2024-25.

Among these, NMC through its notice dated 11.04.2024, informed that a total number of 10 institutes had withdrawn their 34 applications for starting and increasing PG medical seats. Through the same notice, NMC informed that it had sent communications in respect of 204 online applications for starting or increase of PG medical seats to the concerned medical institutes for information and necessary action by them within the stipulated timeline.

Again, through other notices, NMC sent communications on more applications. Referring to these earlier communications, MARB mentioned in its notice dated 28.03.2024, “It may be recalled that vide MARB’s Public notice of even number dated 11th March 2024, 12th March 2024, 15th March 2024, 21st March 2024, 22nd March 2024 & 27th March 2024, it was informed that communications in respect of 238 + 214 + 202 + 218 + 205 + 209 = 1286 online PG Medical course applications had already been sent through the email IDs (as mentioned in online applications) to the Medical Institutions/Colleges concerned.”

“Communications in respect of remaining applications received online will be sent in due course,” NMC further clarified in its notice.

Meanwhile, NMC had earlier clarified regarding the communications sent to the concerned applicant colleges and informed that the communications had been sent seeking deficient documents and information along with the submission of sworn affidavit.

To view the NMC notice, click on the link below:

https://medicaldialogues.in/pdf_upload/nmc-notice-28032024-235248.pdf

Also Read: NMC sends communications to medical colleges on 209 more applications seeking new PG medical courses, increase in seats

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Wockhardt raises Rs 480 crores via QIP

With the closure of its recent Qualified Institutional Placement (QIP), Wockhardt has now raised Rs 480 crores. The share allotment committee allotted a total of 92,85,163 equity shares to eligible Qualified Institutional Buyers (QIBs), including prominent investors like Madhusudan Kela’s Cohesion MK Best Ideas and Prashant Jain’s 3P India Equity, among others.

According to the BSE filing, 3P India Equity, managed by Prashant Jain, was allotted 14,89,360 shares, which represents 16.04 percent of the QIP size. Meanwhile, Cohesion MK Best Ideas, led by Madhusudan Kela, received 5,80,270 shares, equivalent to 6.25 percent of Wockhardt’s QIP size. 

ICICI Prudential secured 19,34,235 shares, equivalent to 20.83 percent of total Wockhardt’s QIP size. These shares were allotted to various ICICI Prudential schemes by Wockhardt share allotment committee.

Mirae Asset Fund received 8,70,406 shares, amounting to 9.37 percent of Wockhardt’s QIP size. Invesco India Smallcap Fund obtained 5,80,270 shares, constituting 6.25 percent of the QIP shares offered by the pharmaceutical company.

Other notable institutions such as Tata Indian opportunities fund, Gagandeep Credit Capital, and Subhkam Ventures also received shares through the QIP share allotment process.

List of allottees who have been allotted more than 5 per cent (5%) of the equity share issued in the qualified institutions placement

Sr. No.

Name of the Allottees

Shares allotted

% shares allotted to total Issue Size

1(a)

ICICI PRUDENTIAL ELSS TAX SAVER FUND

6,10,700

6.58%

1(b)

ICICI PRUDENTIAL EQUITY & DEBT FUND

7,43,264

8.00%

1(c )

ICICI PRUDENTIAL PHARMA HEALTHCARE AND DIAGANOSTICS (P.H.D) FUND

5,80,271

6.25%

Sub-total

19,34,235

20.83%

2

TATA INDIAN OPPORTUNITIES FUND

13,53,965

14.58%

3

3P INDIA EQUITY FUND 1

14,89,360

16.04%

4(a)

MIRAE ASSET HEALTHCARE FUND MIRAHCFD

4,83,556

5.21%

4(b)

MIRAE ASSET FLEXI CAP FUND

1,54,740

1.67%

4(c )

MIRAE ASSET MULTICAP FUND

2,32,110

2.50%

Sub-total

8,70,406

9.37%

5

COHESION MK BEST IDEAS SUB-TRUST

5,80,270

6.25%

6

INEVSCO INDIA SMALLCAP FUND .

5,80,270

6.25%

7

GAGANDEEP CREDIT CAPITAL PVT LTD

5,07,000

5.46%

8

SUBHKAM VENTURES I PVT LTD

5,00,000

5.38%

Wockhardt Ltd offered a total of 92,85,163 shares to Qualified Institutional Investors at Rs 517 each, aiming to raise approximately Rs 480 crore through the QIP.

The company officially closed this Rs 480 crore QIP on Tuesday, announcing the allotment of shares to eligible QIBs. 

Read also: Wockhardt gets CDSCO Panel nod to study Biphasic insulin aspart

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