Sarcoidosis associated with greater risk of venous thromboembolism, claims study

Researchers have found in a nationwide cohort study that Sarcoidosis was associated with long-term risk of venous thromboembolism.

A growing body of evidence implies that Chronic inflammation is a precursor to venous thromboembolism (VTE). However, unlike other inflammatory conditions such as systemic lupus erythematosus and rheumatoid arthritis, data on the risk of VTE in individuals with sarcoidosis are scarce.

Do individuals with sarcoidosis have a greater long-term risk of developing VTE (pulmonary embolism or deep venous thrombosis) compared to the general population?
Danish nationwide registries were used. Patients >18 years with newly diagnosed sarcoidosis (>2 in/outpatient visits, 1996-2020) without prior VTE were matched 1:4 by age, sex, and comorbidities with individuals from the background population. Venous thromboembolism was the primary outcome.
Key findings from the study are:
· 14,742 patients with sarcoidosis and 58,968 matched individuals of median age 44.7 years were included.
· Of these patients, 57.2% were males.
· The median follow-up duration was 8.8 years.
· The absolute 10-year risks of VTE, pulmonary embolism, and deep venous thrombosis for patients with sarcoidosis were 2.9%, 1.5%, and 1.6%, respectively, compared to 1.6%, 0.7%, and 1.0% in the background population.
· Sarcoidosis was associated with an increased rate of all outcomes in the first year after diagnosis and after the first year compared with the background population.
· Excluding cancer patients and censoring those with incident cancer, the associations persisted.
· Three-month mortality was not significantly different between VTE patients with and without sarcoidosis (adjusted HR 0.84)

The occurrence of VTE during sarcoidosis is associated with a more severe disease and a poorer prognosis. The occurrence of VTE during sarcoidosis might signal a more inflammatory and/or evolutive disease in sarcoidosis/VTE patients and should be taken in consideration when designing therapeutic strategies for them.

In this nationwide cohort study, sarcoidosis was associated with an increased long-term risk of developing venous thromboembolism (VTE) compared to a matched background population.
Reference:
Yafasova A et al. Long-term risk of venous thromboembolism in sarcoidosis: a nationwide cohort study. Chest. 2024 Jan 29:S0012-3692(24)00134-X. doi: 10.1016/j.chest.2024.01.042.

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Understanding 24-Hour Urinary Chemistries: A Key to Assessing Kidney Stone Risk

USA: A recent study published in the American Journal of Kidney Diseases has revealed that higher oxalate, calcium, phosphorus, and sodium levels in urine are linked to increased risk of kidney stones, while higher uric acid, urine volume, citrate, potassium, & magnesium correlate with lower risk.

Dominance analysis revealed three tiers of relative importance among these factors: lower (uric acid, phosphorus & sodium), intermediate (oxalate, potassium & magnesium), and higher (calcium, volume, and citrate).

In Western countries, kidney stones are a common ailment, with a high prevalence and tendency to recur. Most previous studies of the relationship between urinary factors and the risk of kidney stones have either assumed a linear effect of urinary parameters on kidney stone risk or implemented arbitrary thresholds suggesting biologically implausible “all-or-nothing” effects. In addition, not much is known about the impact of urinary factors on kidney stone risk.

Against the above background, Pietro Manuel Ferraro, Section of Nephrology, Department of Medicine, Università degli Studi di Verona, Verona, Italy, and colleagues evaluated the independent associations between urine chemistries and kidney stone formation and examined their magnitude and shape in a prospective cohort study.

For this purpose, the researchers analyzed 9,045 24-hour urine collections from 6,217 Health Professionals Follow-Up Study and Nurses’ Health Studies I and II participants.

The researchers also explored potential non-linear relationships between urinary factors and the risk of forming a kidney stone. For each factor, optimal inflection point analysis was implemented, and dominance analysis was performed to establish the relative importance of each urinary factor.

Exposures included urine volume and pH, and citrate, calcium, oxalate, magnesium, potassium, uric acid, phosphorus, and sodium concentrations.

The main outcome was incident symptomatic kidney stones.

Following were the study’s key findings:

· Each urinary factor was significantly associated with stone formation except for urine pH.

· Higher urinary levels of calcium, oxalate, phosphorus, and sodium were associated with a higher risk of stone formation, whereas, higher urine volume, uric acid, citrate, potassium, and magnesium were associated with a lower risk.

· The relationships were substantially linear for urine calcium, uric acid, and sodium.

· The magnitudes of the relationships were modestly attenuated at levels above the inflection points for urine oxalate, citrate, volume, phosphorus, potassium, and magnesium.

· Dominance analysis identified three categories of factors’ relative importance: higher (calcium, volume, and citrate), intermediate (oxalate, potassium, and magnesium), and lower (uric acid, phosphorus, and sodium).

The study’s limitations include predominantly white participants and a lack of information on stone composition.

“Urine chemistries have complex relationships and differential relative associations with the risk of kidney stone formation,” the researchers concluded.

Reference:

Ferraro, P. M., Taylor, E. N., & Curhan, G. C. (2024). 24-Hour Urinary Chemistries and Kidney Stone Risk. American Journal of Kidney Diseases. https://doi.org/10.1053/j.ajkd.2024.02.010

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AI-powered 3D models based on CBCT may predict injury risk to Inferior alveolar nerve after third molar extraction: Study

AI-powered 3D models based on CBCT may predict injury risk to the Inferior alveolar nerve after third molar extraction suggests a study published in the Journal Of Dentistry

A study was done to compare a three-dimensional (3D) artificial intelligence (AI)- driven model with panoramic radiography (PANO) and cone-beam computed tomography (CBCT) in assessing the risk of inferior alveolar nerve (IAN) injury after mandibular wisdom tooth (M3M) removal through a within-patient controlled trial. From a database of 6,010 patients undergoing M3M surgery, 25 patients met the inclusion criteria of bilateral M3M removal with postoperative unilateral IAN injury. In this within-patient controlled trial, preoperative PANO and CBCT images were available. At the same time, 3D-AI models of the mandibular canal and teeth were generated from the CBCT images using the Virtual Patient Creator AI platform (Relu BV, Leuven, Belgium). Five examiners, blinded to surgical outcomes, assessed the imaging modalities and assigned scores indicating the risk level of IAN injury (high, medium, or low risk). Sensitivity, specificity, and area under the receiver operating curve (AUC) for IAN risk assessment were calculated for each imaging modality.

Results: For IAN injury risk assessment after M3M removal, sensitivity was 0.87 for 3D-AI, 0.89 for CBCT versus 0.73 for PANO. Furthermore, the AUC and specificity values were 0.63 and 0.39 for 3D-AI, 0.58 and 0.28 for CBCT, and 0.57 and 0.41 for PANO, respectively. There was no statistically significant difference (p>0.05) among the imaging modalities for any diagnostic parameters. This within-patient controlled trial study revealed that risk assessment for IAN injury after M3M removal was rather similar for 3D-AI, PANO, and CBCT, with a sensitivity for injury prediction reaching up to 0.87 for 3D-AI and 0.89 for CBCT.

Clinical significance

This within-patient trial is pioneering in exploring the application of 3D AI-driven models for assessing IAN injury risk after M3M removal. The present results indicate that AI-powered 3D models based on CBCT might facilitate IAN risk assessment of M3M removal.

Reference:

Fernando Fortes Picoli, Rocharles Cavalcante Fontenele, Frederic Van der Cruyssen, Iraj Ahmadzai, Trigeminal Nerve Injuries research group, Constantinus Politis, Maria Alves Garcia Silva, Reinhilde Jacobs. Risk assessment of inferior alveolar nerve injury after wisdom tooth removal using 3D AI-driven models: A within-patient study, Journal of Dentistry, Volume 139, 2023, 104765, ISSN 0300-5712, https://doi.org/10.1016/j.jdent.2023.104765.

(https://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/pii/S0300571223003512)

Keywords:

AI-powered 3D models, CBCT, predict, injury risk, Inferior alveolar nerve, third molar extraction, Artificial intelligence; Cone-beam computed tomography; Panoramic radiography; Nerve damage; Wisdom teeth, Fernando Fortes Picoli, Rocharles Cavalcante Fontenele, Frederic Van der Cruyssen, Iraj Ahmadzai, Trigeminal Nerve Injuries research group, Constantinus Politis, Maria Alves Garcia Silva, Reinhilde Jacobs

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High HbA1c levels in early to mid-pregnancy associated with adverse pregnancy outcomes: Study

Hyperglycemia during pregnancy poses risks to both mothers and infants, necessitating vigilant monitoring. A recent study, a secondary analysis of the AMANHI cohort, investigates the correlation between early to mid-pregnancy HbA1c levels and pregnancy complications in three South Asian and Sub-Saharan African countries. Elevated maternal HbA1c levels emerged as an independent risk factor for adverse pregnancy outcomes in South Asia and Sub-Saharan Africa.

This study was published in the journal BMC Pregnancy and Childbirth by Muhammad Imran Nisar and colleagues. The AMANHI cohort enrolled 10,001 pregnant women across Bangladesh, Pakistan, and Tanzania between May 2014 and June 2018. HbA1c assays were conducted during the early gestational period, and epidemiological data were collected throughout pregnancy. Maternal outcomes were tracked, with a focus on adverse events.

The key findings of the study were:

  • Among 9,510 pregnant women analyzed, mean HbA1c levels varied across regions:

  • Bangladesh (5.31 ± 0.37), Tanzania (5.22 ± 0.49), and Pakistan (5.07 ± 0.58).

  • The multivariate analysis revealed that maternal HbA1c levels ≥ 6.5 were independently associated with increased risks of stillbirths (aRR = 6.3, 95% CI = 3.4,11.6), preterm births (aRR = 3.5, 95% CI = 1.8–6.7), and Large for Gestational Age (aRR = 5.5, 95% CI = 2.9–10.6).

  • These findings advocate for early interventions to mitigate risks in these regions.

In conclusion, elevated maternal HbA1c levels during early to mid-pregnancy pose a significant risk for adverse outcomes, including stillbirths, preterm births, and Large for Gestational Age babies, in South Asian and Sub-Saharan African populations. These findings highlight the importance of early monitoring and intervention strategies to mitigate these risks and improve maternal and fetal health outcomes.

Reference:

Nisar, M. I., Das, S., Khanam, R., Khalid, J., Chetia, S., Hasan, T., Shahid, S., Marijani, M. L., Ahmed, S., Khalid, F., Ali, S. M., Chowdhury, N. H., Mehmood, U., Dutta, A., Rahman, S., Qazi, M. F., Deb, S., Mitra, D. K., Usmani, A. A., … Jehan, F. Early to mid-pregnancy HbA1c levels and its association with adverse pregnancy outcomes in three low middle-income countries in Asia and Sub-Saharan Africa. BMC Pregnancy and Childbirth,2024;24(1). https://doi.org/10.1186/s12884-023-06241-w

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Cardiac Risk Scores May Be Useful for Predicting Outcome of Acute Ischemic Stroke: Study

A recent study published in Neurology India shows that HEART (History, ECG, Age, Risk factors, and Troponin) score is effective in determining re-hospitalization and recurrent cerebral ischemic event risk as well as mortality within 30 days and 1 year in patients presenting with acute ischemic stroke.

Stroke is one of the most common causes of death and disability among adults. Advanced age, female gender, and comorbidities such as hypertension (HT), diabetes mellitus (DM), heart failure (HF), history of previous vascular disease, stroke, and transient ischemic attack (TIA) are well-known risk factors for stroke. CHA2DS2-VASc score is a frequently used scoring system originally created to tailor anticoagulant therapy in patients with atrial fibrillation (AF). Moreover, patients with high prestroke CHA2DS2-VASc score were shown to have worse clinical and functional outcomes regardless of AF. The prestroke CHA2DS2-VASc score has also been used to determine 1-year and 10-year stroke recurrency risk.

The CHA2DS2-VASc score is mainly involved of risk factors and comorbidities, whereas hemodynamic and laboratory findings that are also essential for risk stratification in stroke patients are not used. For instance, measurement of cardiac troponin (cTn) is recommended in all patients with suspected stroke according to the current guidelines to define high-risk patients for worse clinical outcomes. cTn was thought to be increased as a result of cardiac injury via elevated catecholamine levels and nonspecific physiologic stress response. Involvement of insular cortex was shown to be associated with myocardial injury which may end up with increased cTn levels. Additionally, electrocardiography (ECG) findings like nonspecific ST-segment and T-wave abnormalities on admission were shown to be associated with the increased risk of adverse outcomes in stroke patients. On the other hand, the HEART score was created to assess the risk of major adverse cardiac event (MACE) occurrence within 30 days to 6 weeks in patients who were admitted to emergency department with a suspicion of acute coronary syndrome (ACS).

Ozcan et al from Turkey hypothesized that HEART risk score could predict 30-day and 1-year mortality, in addition to re-hospitalization and recurrent cardiac or cerebral ischemic events. Patients hospitalized with a diagnosis of acute ischemic stroke in our tertiary center between 2019 and 2021 were included in this retrospective study. CHA2DS2-VASc and HEART scores on admission were calculated. In-hospital, 1-month, and 1-year mortalities, as well as re-hospitalization due to recurrent ischemic (cardiac/cerebral), were defined as major adverse cardiac and cerebrovascular events (MACCE), and occurrence of MACCE was accepted as the primary endpoint of the study. Comparative statistical and regression analyses were obtained.

They found that patients with MACCE had higher BMI, higher smoking, and hyperlipidemia rates. Similarly, ACE inhibitor/ARB and calcium channel blockers were found to be more in those patients. This significance correlated with the higher rates of HT diagnosis in these patients and might be attributable to uncontrolled HT in them. Blood pressure control must be the target for secondary prevention regardless of the agent.

Elevated cTn levels were found to be associated with an increased risk of in-hospital and all-cause mortality in long-term follow-up. Though cardiac troponin T (cTnT) levels were found to be more sensitive to predict adverse outcomes in acute ischemic stroke patients, cardiac troponin I was used in their study and found to be significantly elevated in patients who experienced MACCE. Baseline CRP and cTn levels were significantly higher in MACCE patients and these two markers were associated with recurrent ischemic stroke and mortality in both 30 days and 1 year according to our results.

“HEART score comprises cTn as a variable and provides the benefit of using a biomarker in conjunction with clinical risk factors. Thus, HEART score could predict recurrent ischemic stroke and mortality risk with a significantly higher proficiency than the guideline-recommended CHA2DS2-VASc score, which only consist of traditional risk factors.”, conclude the authors.

The study revealed that the HEART score is effective in determining re-hospitalization and recurrent cerebral ischemic event risk as well as mortality within 30 days and 1 year in patients presenting with acute ischemic stroke. Thus, concomitant use of HEART and CHA2DS2-VASc scores may provide better characterization of worse prognosis in ischemic stroke patients with high sensitivity and specificity.

Refernece:

Ozcan, Sevgi; Donmez, Esra; Coban, Eda1; Korkut, Elif1; Ziyrek, Murat; Sahin, Irfan; Okuyan, Ertuğrul. Role of Cardiac Risk Scores in Clinical Use to Predict Outcomes of Acute Ischemic Stroke. Neurology India 71(6):p 1197-1204, Nov–Dec 2023. | DOI: 10.4103/0028-3886.391383 

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JAMA: Early Treatment with Antivirals Effective in Children with Hepatitis C

A recent study published in the Journal of American Medical Association unveiled a promising findings regarding the efficacy and cost-effectiveness of early treatment for children with perinatally acquired hepatitis C virus (HCV) infection in the United States.

This study looks into the pressing need for interventions as HCV transmission from mother to child which continues to pose a significant health concern by affecting approximately 7% to 8% of births. With the recent approval of direct-acting antiviral (DAA) therapy for children aged three years and older, Megan Rose Curtis and team evaluated the clinical and economic impacts of initiating treatment at various ages.

After utilizing a sophisticated state-transition model, this research projected outcomes for a cohort of 1000 children with perinatally acquired HCV from the age of three years until death. By offering DAA therapy at ages three, six, twelve, and eighteen years along with a scenario of never treating HCV, this research examined life expectancy, healthcare costs and clinical outcomes including cirrhosis and hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC).

The results revealed that treating HCV at the age of three years was linked with significantly lower lifetime per-person healthcare costs with projected life expectancy also being longest when treatment was initiated early when compared to delaying treatment until later ages. Early treatment at three years old was estimated to prevent numerous cases of cirrhosis, HCC and liver-related deaths when compared to delaying treatment until six years old. 

Early DAA therapy offer substantial clinical benefits and additionally it also presents a cost-effective approach that could potentially save healthcare resources and improve overall population health. In conclusion, the study highlights the importance of expanding access to DAA therapy for young children with HCV that emphasizes the need for policy measures ensuring timely and equitable treatment.

Reference:

Curtis, M. R., Epstein, R. L., Pei, P., Linas, B. P., & Ciaranello, A. L. (2024). Cost-Effectiveness of Strategies for Treatment Timing for Perinatally Acquired Hepatitis C Virus. In JAMA Pediatrics. American Medical Association (AMA). https://doi.org/10.1001/jamapediatrics.2024.0114

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Surgeon, Hospital slapped Rs 5 lakh compensation for removing Sciatica Nerve without Consent

New Delhi: The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC) recently held a surgeon and a hospital liable for not taking consent for the removal of a 6cm sciatica nerve of a patient, along with not recording its removal in post-operative notes, informing about it to the patient and providing requisite counselling.

Holding them liable for deficiency in service, the Apex Consumer Court directed them to pay Rs 5 lakh lump sum compensation to the patient. Earlier, the State Commission had also ordered them to reimburse the cost of treatment incurred after the surgery. However, the top consumer court noted that the doctor and hospital defended the requirement of cutting the sciatica nerve to save the patient.

“…while the requirement of cutting sciatica nerve has been adequately defended, at the same time, not obtaining the consent and not recording in the post operation notes as well as informing him and guiding him with respect to handling such conditions at the time of discharge certainly constitutes negligence on part of OP-1 and 2,” it held.

The history of the case goes back to 2012 when the patient consulted Dr. Kokne, a surgeon, at the treating hospital. It was alleged the doctor recommended an operation to remove a tumour in the patient’s thigh, assuring him that he would regain proper mobility afterwards. Accordingly, the complainant’s wife gave consent for the surgery and the operation was performed by the surgeon, who excised the tumour from the patient’s left thigh.

However, the patient alleged that during the procedure, the doctor negligently severed the 6 CM sciatic nerve, the primary nerve of the left leg. Due to this, the patient lost sensation and mobility in his left and became unable to walk unaided. Further, it was also alleged that the doctor failed to mention the severance of the sciatic nerve in the post-operative notes. 

Thereafter, two days after the surgery, Dr Ravi, a pathologist provided a test report revealing that the complainant was suffering from cancer (“Atypical Lipoma favoring well Differentiated Liposarcoma”). Consequently, the patient was referred to Gupte Cancer Clinic, where cancer treatment was initiated, including chemotherapy.

The patient alleged that the Clinic erroneously reported improvement in sensation in his left leg. He also submitted that he incurred Rs 3 lakh as expenses for the chemotherapy. Subsequently, due to mobility issues, he took medical advice from Christian Medical College, where a re-examination of the excised tumour tissue revealed no definitive evidence of cancer.

It was mentioned in the report, “In CMC, review of previous histology showed no definition evidence of a high-risk grade sarcoma (however atypical lipomatous tumour cannot be excluded).”

Therefore, he was advised to undergo another operation. Following this, the patient sought a second opinion from the doctors at Meditrina Institute of Medical Science, Nagpur, where the post-operative injury to the left sciatic nerve, resulting in a left foot drop, was diagnosed. Consequently, a surgery was performed to repair the severed nerve, incurring Rs 3,75,000 for tests, medicines, and hospital fees, and Rs 4,25,000 for operation. 

Alleging that due to the negligence of the treating surgeon and pathologist, coupled with the erroneous communication of cancer diagnosis and further treatment by the Cancer Clinic, the complainant sent legal notices to the parties and sought Rs 18,30,000 compensation. When the doctors and hospital refused to pay the compensation, the complainant filed before the District Forum, seeking compensation with interest and litigation costs.

On the other hand, the doctors and hospital refuted all allegations and contended that the hospital appointed Dr. Kokne as a Surgeon at their hospital. The complainant underwent tumour testing at a hospital in Nagpur through sonography, where a doctor advised him to undergo tumour removal surgery. It was also submitted that the patient had been living with a tumour for 15-20 years and the family members were informed that both the tumour and its surrounding area needed removal.

It was submitted that during the operation on 07.08.2012, the doctor discovered that the tumour was cancerous and had spread to the surrounding area. They further claimed that to prevent endangering the patient’s life, both the tumour and the affected surrounding area were excised. Allegedly, the patient’s relatives were informed of this situation and the tumour was later sent to Dr. Ravi for testing, after which it was confirmed to be cancerous.

The doctor claimed that he followed the principle of “life over limb” in medical jurisprudence, prioritizing the patient’s life over a particular body part and denied the allegations of any medical negligence. Further, the doctor stated that the complainant did not adhere to the instructions and the prescribed post-operative medication and instead sought chemotherapy based on the cancer diagnosis. 

Meanwhile, the pathologist and the cancer clinic refuted these allegations and contended that since the surgeon and hospital conducted the tumour operation, it was not appropriate for them to respond to the contentions. They also submitted that the necessity of the tumour removal due to its size and the entanglement of the left sciatic nerve with the tumour, led to its natural severance during the operation. They refuted the claim that the Complainant’s left leg became non-functional due to this.

The pathologist further referred to the report which indicated Atypical Lipoma Favors well differentiated Liposarcoma” due to observed tissue changes. He submitted that even though he advised further testing through “Immunohistology Chemistry”, the patient did not undergo the same. He also referred to the similarity between Dr Ravi and Vellore’s reports with a slight difference in wording, both indicated diagnosis of “Atypical Lipomatous tumour”. Vellore’s experts also recommended radiotherapy. Regarding nerve entanglement with the tumour, it was argued that, it is customary to severe the nerve to the extent needed, with the possibility of re-establishing it by a simple operation. They asserted that they did not provide negligent services.

While considering the matter, the District Commission held that there was no negligence and accordingly it dismissed the complaint. However, the State Commission held that the operating surgeon should have obtained informed consent and also should have noticed the injury to the Sciatic Nerve and accordingly the necessary information should have been given to the patient as well as the relatives.

However, it held that the pathologist and the cancer clinic performed their duties in accordance with the reports which they received and therefore, there was no negligence or deficiency on their part in providing treatment to the complainant. Accordingly, the State Commission had partly allowed the complaint with a cost quantified to Rs 25,000 to be paid by the surgeon and the hospital to the complainant. They were also directed to reimburse the treatment expenditure of Rs 3,75,000 at Christian Medical College, Vellore and the treatment expenditure at Meditrina Institute of Medical Science Nagpur Rs 4,25,000 along with interest. Further, they were directed to pay Rs 5 lakh as compensation towards physical and mental harassment and loss of income.

However, the order of the State Commission was challenged before the Apex Consumer Court. While considering the matter, the NCDRC bench noted that the complainant had a tumour in his left thigh for more than 15 years. The surgeon advised surgery to remove the tumour. Accordingly, the surgeon excised the tumour along with surrounding tissues, as well as a part of his main sciatic nerve. This resulted in loss of sensation and rendered him unable to walk without assistance. Subsequently, based on the pathological examination of the tissue, the Complainant was diagnosed with cancer leading to chemotherapy treatment.

The NCDRC noted that further examination revealed that there was no definite evidence of cancer in the tumour tissue and the patient underwent another surgery to repair the damaged nerve, incurring significant expenses for medical treatment and surgery. Therefore, the dispute is centred on the adequacy of informed consent, the standard of care during surgery, the accuracy of diagnosis and the appropriateness of the treatment provided, noted the top consumer court.

“The material difference between the aspects of medical care lies in the degree of passivity on the part of the patient. The diagnosis and treatment are in the domain of doctor, and the patient is a passive participant. When advice is being given to the patient, the patient assumes an active role. Then doctor’s function is to empower and enable the patient to make a decision by giving him relevant, sufficient and material information. The patient must make choices and decisions. The patient must be informed about the options for treatment, its consequences, risks and benefits. Why doctor thinks particular treatment necessary and appropriate for the patient. The prognosis and what may happen if treatment is delayed or not given,” noted the consumer court.

“Failing to furnish correct sufficient information when obtaining consent may be a breach of duty of care. It amounts to negligence, failure to inform the patient. The patient must be given a reasonable amount of time to consider the information to make a decision. The allowing of cooling off period is for the purpose to give time to think over the decision or take advice so that patient does not feel pressurized or rushed to sign. On the day of surgery, the patient may be under strain, mental stress or under influence of the pre-procedure drugs which may hamper his decision-making ability. The doctor performing any procedure must obtain the patient’s consent; no one else can consent on behalf of the competent adult. The consent should be properly documented and preferably witnessed as such consent is legally more acceptable. The video recording of the informed consent process may also be done with a prior consent of the patient for the same,” it further observed.

The Commission noted that the main assertion of the complainant was that the removal of the sciatica nerve was neither explained to him nor his wife prior to surgery or during the surgery. Further, it was allegedly not reflected in the operation notes as well.

“There is no evidence on record to indicate that consent for removal of sciatic nerve was taken. The post operation record also does not have mention of the same. There is also no record to indicate that the Complainant was even informed of to such removal and was given necessary guidelines to dealing with such condition and process for restoration. Therefore, while the requirement of cutting sciatica nerve has been adequately defended, at the same time, not obtaining the consent and not recording in the post operation notes as well as informing him and guiding him with respect to handling such conditions at the time of discharge certainly constitutes negligence on part of OP-1 and 2. The Complainant subsequently underwent surgery in Meditrina Institute and got the sciatica nerve restored. Therefore, it deserves to be compensated,” NCDRC noted at this outset.

“In any case with respect to pathological examination, diagnosis and treatment of cancer, OP-1 and 2 have no role. Also no liability has been attributed in this regard against OP-3 and 4,” said the Consumer Court.

Holding the treating surgeon liable, NCDRC noted,

“In view of the foregoing with respect to allegation of medical negligence, the liability of OP-1 and 2 is with respect to removal of 6 cm sciatica nerve, without taking consent, not recording in the post operation notes, not notifying the Complainant even thereafter and not giving him requisite counseling in handling the situation as part of discharge notes. These failures do not align with what a reasonable medical professional would do in similar circumstances. Therefore, OP-1 and 2 are liable to this extent.”

Modifying the State Commission’s order, the Apex Commission observed, “The Petitioners/OP-1&2 are jointly and severally directed to pay a lump sum of Rs.5,00,000/- to the Complainant on account of deficiency in service in not taking consent for removal of 6 cm sciatica nerve without taking consent, not recording its removal in post operation notes, not notifying the Complainant even thereafter and not giving him the requisite counseling as part of discharge notes, mental agony and harassment, loss of income and litigation costs. This amount shall be paid within one month from the date of this order. In the event of delay beyond the said period of one month, the simple interest applicable for such extended period shall be @ 12% per annum, till realization.”

To view the order, click on the link below:

https://medicaldialogues.in/pdf_upload/ncdrc-5-lakh-compensation-236748.pdf

Also Read: Monitoring lapse post Septoplasty leads to patient’s death: ENT surgeon, Anaesthesiologist, Hospital slapped Rs 30 lakh compensation

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AIIMS Rishikesh Invites Applications For Post-Doctoral Fellowship admissions July 2024, all Details here

Rishikesh : All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS Rishikesh) has invited applications for Post-Doctoral Fellowship (PDF) courses beginning from July 2024.

The candidates can apply till 22nd May 2024 (Wednesday) up to 05:00 PM through Registered Post/Speed Post Only. The date of the Examination and Interview shall be intimated separately, the candidates are advised to keep visiting the official website of AIIMS Rishikesh for the latest updates.

The duly filled-in application along with necessary documents and applicable fee should reach “Examination Cell, All India Institute of Medical Sciences, Rishikesh (Uttarakhand)- 249203. Application form sent through courier will not be entertained.

Application received after the last date or incomplete in any respect or those not accompanied by the documents/information will not be considered.

The envelope should be super-scribedAPPLICATION FOR THE Fellowship course, July 2024 SESSION.” 

Fellowship
Course

·

Last Date for submission of Application

22.05.2024

Wednesday

·

Issuing Admit Card/E-mail regarding
examination

01.06.2024

Saturday

·

Tentative date of Written Entrance
Examination

05.06. 2024

Wednesday

·

Tentative date of Departmental Assessment

18.06.2024

Tuesday

Note: All applicants are hereby instructed to read the terms & conditions in the prospectus, including the eligibility criteria carefully before filling the form. All Candidates shall be provisionally allowed to write the examination (Stage-I). However, any discrepancy found later in the applications form shall debar you from appearing in the Stage-II of exam (Departmental Assessment) or Admission to the course as the case may be.

Declaration of Results

Note 1: Results for PDF will be only available on website at www.aiimsrishikesh.edu.in Result of individual candidate will NOT be informed on telephone and candidates are advised NOT to call Examination Section for such information.

Application Fee

•General / OBC Category: Rs.1500/- + Transaction Charges as applicable

•SC/ST/EWS Category: Rs. 1200/- + Transaction Charges as applicable

•PWD Candidates are exempted from any Fee

•Mode of payment: Through online only i.e.: NEFT/RTGS/UPI etc., Name of Bank: Punjab National Bank, Name of Account: AIIMS, Examination, A/c No.: 6189000100046878. IFSC Code: PUNB0618900. Candidate who will deposit fee through cash in account mentioned will not be considered for course and fee will not be refunded in any circumstances.

Note 2:-OBC Caste Certificate to be produced during 18.06.2023 to 17.06.2024 (as per format attached, Annexure-1). An EWS Certificate issued in prescribed format for employment in Central Govt. on the basis on income of Financial Year 2023-2024 issued after 01.04.2024 but not later than 17.06.2024 valid for the year 2024-2025 will be consider valid. (as per format attached, Annexure-3).

All applicants are advised to read Prospectus carefully. In event of rejection of application form, no correspondence/request for reconsideration will be entertained.

SUMMARY OF EXAMINATION PATTERN (Please see text for details and explanations)

01

Mode
of Examination

Computer
Based Test (CBT) [Online] / OMR

02

Duration
of Examination

90 Minutes Stage I

03

Tentative
Date of Examination

05 June 2024

04

Number
of Shifts

01 (One)

05

Tentative
Timing of Examination

10.00 AM Onwards

06

Location
of Examination Centre

AIIMS Rishikesh

07

Language
of Paper

English

08

Type
of Examination

Objective Type

09

Marking
Scheme (Out of Total 100 Marks)

Stage-I
(80 marks of 90 minutes)

Stage-II
(20 marks for Departmental

Assessment)

No
Negative Marking

10

Type
of Objective Questions

Multiple Choice Questions
(MCQs)

11

Distribution
of Questions

80 Multiple choice
Questions (MCQs)

12

Method
of resolving ties

Tie
among aspirants will be resolved according to age (Date of birth); older
candidate shall get preference over younger one.

Fellowship Course

PROGRAMS
OFFERED

S.no.

Department

Fellowship Course

Duration

1.

Biochemistry

Gastro Biochemistry

1 year

2.

Diagnostic &

Interventional

Radiology

Cross Sectional Body Imaging

1 year

Gastro Radiology

1 year

Paediatric Radiology

1 year

Breast Imaging

1 year

3.

Emergency Medicine

Emergency critical care

1 year

Emergency toxicology

1 year

4.

Endocrinology

Paediatric Endocrinology

1 year

5.

Geriatric Medicine

Lifestyle Disease Management

1 year

6.

General Medicine

Diabetology

1 year

7.

Microbiology

Infectious Diseases

1 year

8.

Ophthalmology

Cornea

1 year

9.

Orthopaedics

Musculoskeletal Tumor & Bone Banking

1 year

10.

Pathology

Molecular Diagnostic

1 year

Cytopathology

1 year

11.

Transfusion Medicine

& Blood Bank

Apheresis & Blood Component

Therapy

1 year

12.

Trauma Surgery &

Critical Care

Spine Trauma

1 year

SEATS DISTRIBUTION

S.no.

Department

Fellowship Course

Seats (Open Cat.)

1.

Biochemistry

Gastro Biochemistry

1

2.

Diagnostic &

Interventional

Radiology

Cross Sectional Body
Imaging

1

Gastro Radiology

1

Paediatric Radiology

1

Breast Imaging

1

3.

Emergency Medicine

Emergency critical
care

1

Emergency toxicology

1

4.

Endocrinology

Paediatric
Endocrinology

1

5.

Geriatric Medicine

Lifestyle Disease
Management

1

6.

General Medicine

Diabetology

1

7.

Microbiology

Infectious Diseases

1

8.

Ophthalmology

Cornea

1

9.

Orthopaedics

Musculoskeletal Tumor
& Bone Banking

1

10.

Pathology

Molecular Diagnostics

1

Cytopathology

1

11.

Transfusion Medicine

& Blood Bank

Apheresis &
Blood Component

Therapy

1

12.

Trauma Surgery &

Critical Care

Spine Trauma

2

Essential Educational Qualifications

Candidates must possess, a requisite qualification RECOGNISED by National Medical Commission, India (except for degrees not covered by National Medical Commission, India, where degrees must be recognised by respective bodies that approve qualifying courses). Postgraduate degrees from Departments / Institutions to which NMC, India recognition has not been formally granted (for example: under consideration) will not be considered and candidature of applicants with such degrees may be rejected at any stage (including after admission if this fact comes to notice at that stage).

Eligibility:

(a) MD/MS Postgraduate degree or other Equivalent Degree recognized by the NMC in respective discipline AND

(b) 2 years post PG teaching experience as Senior Resident or equivalent post after obtaining the PG degree in the concerned discipline only from a NMC recognized/permitted medical Institute/College, on or before last date of submitting application.

Course wise eligibility in addition to what is mentioned in Clause 1:

S.no.

Department

Fellowship
Course

Eligibility

1

Biochemistry

Gastro

Biochemistry

MD Biochemistry / Ph.D.

Biochemistry /Ph.D. Biotechnology

2

Diagnostic &

Interventional Radiology

Cross Sectional

Body Imaging

MD Radiodiagnosis or equivalent from a
teaching Institution

Gastro Radiology

MD/DNB in Radiology or Radio­diagnosis

Paediatric

Radiology

MD/DNB Radiodiagnosis

Breast Imaging

MD/DNB in Radiology or Radio­diagnosis

3

Emergency Medicine

Emergency critical care

MD Emergency Medicine or

Anaesthesiology or Internal Medicine

Emergency toxicology

MD Emergency Medicine or an equivalent degree 

4

Endocrinology

Paediatric

Endocrinology

MD/DNB(Paediatrics)

5

Geriatric

Medicine

Lifestyle Disease

Management

MD Medicine/MD Community & Family Medicine / MD
Physiology/ MD Pharmacology or Equivalent

6

General

Medicine

Diabetology

MD/DNB (Medicine/Paediatrics)

7

Microbiology

Infectious Diseases

MD/DNB (Microbiology)/ MD/DNB (Medicine)

8

Ophthalmology

Cornea

MD/MS
Ophthalmology/Equivalent qualifications

9

Orthopaedics

Musculoskeletal

Tumor & Bone

MS
/DNB (Orthopaedics)

10

Pathology

Molecular

Diagnostics

MD
/ DNB / in Pathology /MD / DNB / Degree in Biochemistry

Cytopathology

MD
Pathology

11

Transfusion

Medicine &

Apheresis & Blood
Component

MD/DNB (Pathology/Transfusion

Medicine)

12

Blood Bank Trauma
Surgery & Critical Care

Therapy

Spine Trauma

MS/DNB Orthopaedics

Surgery/Diploma
in Orthopaedics with one year experience

RESERVATION

There is no reservation in Fellowship program. Candidates will be considered against vacancy of senior residents in respective departments.

CENTRE FOR COMPETITIVE ENTRANCE EXAMINATION

Sl.
No.

Name
of City

Code

1.

Rishikesh

01

•Examination will be conducted at Rishikesh only.

Candidate are advised to check location of the test centre one-day advance to avoid any type of difficulty on the examination day.

SCHEME OF MARKING

•There will be no negative marking in written examination.

•No credit will be given for questions not answered.

If any discrepancy in any question is found in Entrance Examination, candidate is advised to write to Dean (Examination), AIIMS, Rishikesh within 24 hours of completion of examination on following email: E-mailrec.exam@aiimsrishikesh.edu.in.This mail will only be used for discrepancy related to question. However, for any other query please mail on dean@aiimsrishikesh.edu.in

METHOD OF SELECTION

Selections for Fellowship courses are made through written examination & interview.

Stage I: Written test carrying 80 marks of 90 minutes duration in subject candidate has applied for. Question paper will consist of 80 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs).

Candidates who secure ≥50% marks in Stage I shall be eligible for the Stage II examination (Approved in 12 AC).

Stage II:

a. Based on merit list from Stage I, candidates 3 times number of seats advertised will be called for departmental clinical/practical/lab based assessment (carrying 20 marks).

b. Candidates who secure ≥50% marks in stage I & II combined shall be eligible for admission and shall be included in the final merit list (Approved in 12 AC).

Final Selection: Final result will be declared based on total marks obtained in stage- I and stage-II Examination.

Note:

I) Result of written examination will be available on website of AIIMS Rishikesh. No individual intimation will be communicated to candidates.

II) Candidates who fail to attend any of two stages mentioned above will not be eligible for admission.

III) Selected candidates are required to join on or before 15th July 2024. An extension of date of joining may be granted by competent authority on merit of each case.

IV) Last date for admission to Fellowship Course will be 31st July 2024. In any circumstances, last date for admission will not be extended after 31st July 2024.

FEES

Fee structure for PDF courses is as follows (in Indian Rupees):

Particulars

Amount

Remarks

Registration Fees

5,000

Tution Fees

45,000

yearly

Enrolment Fees

1000

Degree / Diploma Certificate Fees

1000

Migration Certificate Fees

1000

Caution Money (Refundable)

20,000

Medical Subscription Fees

2,000

Library Fees

1000

Alumni Fee

2,000

Pot Fund

800

Recreation/Gymkhana Fee

150

Mess Security

1000

Hostel Security

1000

Total

80,
950

Electricity Charges

Rs. 300/- per month or on actual basis (whichever
is higher)

Examination Fee

Rs. 834/- per month for 9
months

Note: Above fees are subject to revision from time to time by Institute and students admitted shall have to pay fees as may be decided by Institute.

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTION APPLICABLE TO POST-DOCTORAL FELLOWSHIP ENTRANCE EXAMINATIONS

DOCUMENTS TO BE ATTACHED WITH APPLICATION FORM:

Copy of the self-attested Certificate

  1. Date of Birth and Class
    X and XII Certificate
  2. Medical Council
    Registration
  3. Internship completion
    certificate SC/ST/OBC/EWS/PWBD
    certificate issued by the competent authority (if
  1. applicable)
  2. MBBS Mark-sheets
  3. MBBS Degree
  4. MD/MS/DNB/Diploma
    Mark-sheets
  5. MD/MS/DNB Degree/Diploma
  6. Attempt certificates
  7. Fee Receipt
  8. Experience Certificate
  9. Copies of any other
    relevant documents

To view the official Notice, Click here : https://medicaldialogues.in/pdf_upload/final-prospectus–july-2024-236961.pdf

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Assistant Professor Post At UPSC In Health Ministry, Apply Now

New Delhi: The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) has invited online applications for the Specialist Grade III Post Assistant Professor in the Department of Health and Family Welfare, Ministry of Health & Family Welfare on permanently in different dept.

UPSC is India’s premier central recruiting agency. It is responsible for appointments to and examinations for All India services and group A & group B of Central services.

UPSC Vacancy Details:

Total no. of Vacancies:- 40

The Vacancies are in the departments of Nephrology, Nuclear Medicine, Orthopaedics, Paediatric Cardiology, Paediatric Surgery, and Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery, Surgical Oncology, Urology.

Last Date of Application: 2nd May 2024.

For more details about Qualifications, Age, Pay Allowance, and much more, click on the given link:
https://medicaljob.in/jobs.php?post_type=&job_tags=upsc&location=&job_sector=all

HOW TO APPLY?

i) Candidates must apply online through the website http://www.upsconline.nic.in. Applications received through any other mode would not be accepted and summarily rejected.

ii) Candidates must upload the documents/certificates in support of all the claims made by them in the application like, Date of Birth, Experience (preferably in prescribed format), Desirable Qualification(s) etc. or any other information, separately against each claim in pdf file in such a way that the file size does not exceed 1 MB for the respective aforesaid modules and 2 MB for the “UPLOAD OTHER DOCUMENT” module and is legible when a printout taken. For that purpose, the applicant may scan the documents/certificates in 200 dpi grey scale. Documents like Pay Slip, Resume, Appointment Letter, Relieving Letter, Un-signed Experience Certificate etc. must not be uploaded in the Document Upload Module:-

a) Matriculation/10th Standard or equivalent certificate indicating date of birth, or mark sheet of Matriculation/10th Standard or equivalent issued by Central/State Board indicating Date of Birth in support of claim of age. Where date of birth is not available in certificate/mark sheets, issued by concerned Educational Boards, School leaving certificate indicating Date of Birth (in case of Tamil Nadu& Kerala).

b) Degree/Diploma certificate as proof of educational qualification claimed. In the absence of Degree/Diploma certificate, provisional certificate along with mark sheets pertaining to all the academic years.

c) Order/ letter in respect of equivalent Educational Qualifications claimed, indicating the Authority (with number and date) under which it has been so treated, in respect of equivalent clause in Essential Qualifications, if a candidate is claiming a particular qualification as equivalent qualification as per the requirement of advertisement.

d) Certificate(s) in the prescribed proforma from the Head(s) of Organization(s)/Department(s) for the entire experience claimed, clearly mentioning the duration of employment (date, month & year) indicating the basic pay and consolidated pay. The certificate(s) should also mention the nature of duties performed/experience obtained in the post(s) with duration(s). Experience Certificate should be issued in prescribed format relevant to the post. Experience certificate not in prescribed proforma but containing all the details as mentioned above would be considered on merits by the Commission.

e) Caste certificate by candidate seeking reservation as SC/ ST/ OBC, in the prescribed proforma from the competent authority indicating clearly the candidate’s Caste, the Act/ Order under which the Caste is recognized as SC/ ST/ OBC and the village/ town the candidate is ordinarily a resident of.

f) A declaration in the prescribed format by candidate seeking reservation as OBC, that he/she does not belong to the creamy layer on the crucial date, in addition to the community certificate (OBC). Unless specified otherwise, the prescribed closing date for receipt of Online Recruitment Application for the post is to be treated as crucial date.

g) Certificate of Disability in prescribed proforma issued by the competent authority to Persons with Benchmark Disabilities (PwBD) eligible for appointment to the post on the basis of prescribed standards of Medical Fitness. The Competent Authority to issue Certificate of Disability shall be a Medical Board duly constituted by the Central or a State Government. The Central/ State Government may constitute Medical Board(s) consisting of at least three members out of which at least one shall be a specialist in the particular field for assessing Locomotor/ Cerebral / Visual / Hearing disability, as the case may be.

h) Documentary support for any other claim(s) made.

Note: If any document/ certificate furnished is in a language other than Hindi or English, a transcript of the same duly attested by a Gazetted officer or notary is to be uploaded.

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Research shows ‘profound’ link between dietary choices and brain health

A recent study published in Nature Mental Health shows that a healthy, balanced diet is linked to superior brain health, cognitive function and mental well-being. The study, involving researchers at the University of Warwick, sheds light on how our food preferences not only influence physical health but also significantly impact brain health.

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