Medical Admission Scam: Mumbai Woman Duped of Rs 45 Lakh, 1 Arrested, 3 Absconding

Mumbai- A case of medical admission fraud has come to light from Mumbai, where a woman was duped of Rs 45 lakh by promising to get a medical college seat for her daughter. However, Versova police have arrested one accused, and three others are still absconding.

The victim was identified resident of Andheri. She was looking for a medical seat for her younger daughter, who had scored 315 marks in the National Eligibility and Entrance Test (NEET).

Also Read: ED Crackdown on 4 WB Medical Colleges, Attaches Rs 12.33 Crore in NRI Admission Fraud

Meanwhile, the accused have been identified as Meghna Santosh Satpute, Nitesh Pawar, Rakesh Gawade and a man called ‘Sawant Kaka’. Satpute was an acquaintance of of the victim.

According to a FreePressJournal Media news report, when she was looking for a medical seat for her daughter, her acquaintance Satpute contacted her. She claimed that she could get admission under the management quota in a medical college in Sindhudurg, Maharashtra.

The accused then introduced the victim to three other accused, who allegedly claimed to be trustees of the college and even claimed to be relatives of a senior BJP leader to win her confidence. After meeting them, the accused asked her to transfer Rs 45 lakh via NEFT and cash over a period of time. However, believing their claims, she transferred the money 

Even after this, there was no talk about admission and when the mother started asking questions about the promised admission, the accused started threatening her and eventually broke all contact with the victim.

After this, she complained and an investigation revealed that the accused had no connection with the said medical college. After the complaint, Satpute was arrested, however, the police are now searching for three other accused. At present, the case has been registered, and further investigation is going on.

Medical Dialogues  earlier reported a similar case where 5 individuals have been booked for duping around Rs 15 lakh from a man on the pretext of securing admission in MBBS in ESIC Medical College, Faridabad.
Also Read: Man Duped of Rs 15 Lakh in ESIC Medical College Faridabad MBBS Seat Promise, 5 Booked

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Johnson & Johnson MedTech unveils VOLT Wrist, Proximal Humerus Plating Systems in US

West Cheste: Johnson & Johnson MedTech, has announced the launch of the Variable Angle Optimized Locking Technology (VOLT) Distal Radius (Wrist) and VOLT Proximal Humerus 3.5 Plating Systems in the U.S.

These address a critical gap in treating two common fractures. Designed to improve stability, enhance performance, expand surgical options and increase efficiency4†, both systems feature the same precision threaded locking technology introduced with the original VOLT Platform in 2024.

Fractures of the distal radius (near the wrist) and proximal humerus (upper arm near the shoulder) are among the most frequent osteoporotic injuries, especially in adults over age 65. Wrist fractures account for nearly 20% of all emergency departments cases[vii] and are the most common upper limb fracture. Proximal humerus fractures rank third among fragility fractures and represent nearly 6% of all adult cases, an incidence expected to rise with aging populations.

The VOLT Wrist Treatment System was designed in conjunction with the Hand Expert Group within the AO Technical Commission to treat a wide range of fractures.14‡ This system includes the VOLT Two-Column Distal Radius Rim Plate, which features a new plate shape that allows it to sit more distal to the target distal fragments.14‡ The plate profile is significantly less prominent in the area of the flexor pollicis longus region.14‡ These innovations are designed for both simple and complex fracture patterns.15,16¶

“The plate is less prominent14‡, sits more distal14§, and the round, tapered edges are designed to reduce the risk of soft tissue irritation,” said Amy Speeckaert||, M.D., Orthopedic, Hand and Upper Extremity surgeon in the U.S. “The VOLT™ Distal Radius Plates use the new instrumentation from the VOLT Mini Fragment System which offers an expanded range of implants for fracture reduction and fixation.1## The hooks of the VOLT™ Two-Column Distal Radius Rim Plate are designed to engage with volar lip where the ligaments meet the bone.”

Additionally, the VOLT Proximal Humerus 3.5 Plating System represents innovation in the treatment of upper arm fractures that involve the shoulder joint. This system adds the flexibility of variable angle locking5,6,7,8** and includes more plate length options. The plate also features suture holes that are designed for easier suture passage.20†† The VOLT Locking Screws have also been engineered with an atraumatic tip designed to reduce the risk of soft tissue irritation.21‡‡

“The new VOLT Proximal Humerus 3.5 Plating System provides more versatility and options1## with the integration of variable angle locking technology4†, redesigned suture holes20†† and broader plate22¶¶ selection,” said Harry Hoyen§§, M.D., Orthopedic and Hand surgeon in the U.S. and Simon Lambert||||, Orthopedic and Trauma surgeon in the U.K., who both serve on the Shoulder and Elbow Task Force within the AO Technical Commission.#

“The VOLT Wrist Treatment System and VOLT Proximal Humerus 3.5 Plating System are not only a testament to advanced engineering but also reflect a deep understanding of the needs of surgeons and patients,” said Aldo Denti, Company Group Chairman, Orthopaedics, Johnson & Johnson MedTech. “These innovations are designed to provide surgeons with the tools necessary to navigate the complexities of upper extremity fractures with confidence.”

The VOLT Distal Radius and Proximal Humerus 3.5 Plating System, are now commercially available in the U.S., with additional anatomic plating solutions expected to join the platform throughout the next several years. 

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SEC Recommends Market Authorization for Elobixibat 5 mg Tablets by Exemed Pharma

New Delhi: The Subject Expert Committee (SEC) under the Gastroenterology and Hepatology division of the Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO) has recommended market approval for Elobixibat 5 mg tablets, following the review of bioequivalence (BE) study data submitted by Exemed Pharmaceuticals.

The recommendation came during the 7th meeting of the SEC (Gastroenterology and Hepatology) held on 12th June 2025 at the CDSCO headquarters in New Delhi.

Earlier, the committee had advised the firm on 20th December 2024 to submit bioequivalence data. In line with this, the company presented the BE study report for Elobixibat 5 mg. The committee also acknowledged that the formulation had already received approval for manufacture and marketing in India on 15th July 2024.

After a detailed evaluation of the bioequivalence data, the committee found the results satisfactory and recommended final market authorization for the product, paving the way for its commercial rollout across India.

Elobixibat is a first-in-class ileal bile acid transporter (IBAT) inhibitor, indicated for the treatment of chronic idiopathic constipation (CIC). Unlike conventional laxatives, it works by increasing bile acid flow into the colon, thereby enhancing colonic motility and secretion. This novel mechanism offers an alternative treatment option for patients unresponsive to standard therapies.

Exemed Pharmaceuticals, headquartered in Gujarat, is an emerging Indian pharmaceutical company specializing in oral solid dosages. Its expanding portfolio includes both generic and specialty medicines targeting gastrointestinal, cardiovascular, and metabolic disorders.

Also Read: CDSCO Panel Approves Updated Prescribing Information for AstraZeneca’s Rosuvastatin (Crestor)

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Incorporate Yoga into Daily Life to Build a Healthier Society: CM Yogi

Gorakhpur: Uttar Pradesh Chief Minister Yogi Adityanath on Saturday extended heartfelt congratulations on the occasion of the 11th International Day of Yoga (IDY), urging citizens to incorporate yoga into their daily lives to build a healthier and more harmonious society. 

Observed globally every year on June 21, the International Day of Yoga was first proposed by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in 2014 and swiftly adopted by the United Nations, garnering support from 177 countries. Since then, the day has become a global celebration of India’s ancient wellness tradition.

Taking to X, CM Yogi posted, “Hearty congratulations to the people of the state and all yoga practitioners on International Yoga Day! Yoga, the invaluable gift of India’s Rishi tradition, has shown the world the path to mental, spiritual and physical uplift”, news agency IANS reported.

“Come, let us participate in building a healthy society by making yoga a part of our daily routine,” he added.

Also Read:UP launches recruitment drive to fill 4,350 vacant posts in AYUSH Dept

The Chief Minister participated in a special yoga session organised at the Gorakhnath Temple in Gorakhpur, joining hundreds of participants who gathered to mark the occasion with collective practice.

Around the globe, people observed the International Day of Yoga by joining events focused on wellness, mindfulness, and sustainable living.

Prime Minister Narendra Modi led the national event to mark the 11th International Day of Yoga in Visakhapatnam.

Kicking off the IDY, the PM said that yoga gives the world the direction of peace at a time when it is witnessing conflicts, unrest and instability. He urged the international community to let this Yoga Day mark the beginning of yoga for humanity 2.0, where inner peace becomes global policy.

The Prime Minister, who performed the Common Yoga Protocol (CYP) along with over three lakh people at RK Beach, emphasised the importance of yoga in ensuring happiness and peace.

In a parallel event in Haryana, Chief Minister Nayab Singh Saini led a massive yoga session involving nearly one lakh participants on the banks of the sacred Brahma Sarovar in Kurukshetra.

This year’s Yoga Day theme focused on the role of yoga in enhancing not just physical and mental health but also environmental consciousness, echoing the global call for unity, well-being, and sustainable development.

Also Read:Yoga for One Earth, One Health: NMC issues notice for medical colleges for International Yoga day celebrations

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AstraZeneca’s Oral PCSK9 Inhibitor AZD0780 Cleared for Phase III Trial by CDSCO Panel

New Delhi: The Subject Expert Committee (SEC) under the Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) has granted approval to AstraZeneca Pharma India Limited to conduct a Phase III clinical trial for its investigational cardiovascular drug AZD0780.

The decision came during the 9th meeting of the SEC (Cardiovascular), held on 12th June 2025 at the CDSCO headquarters in New Delhi. During the meeting, the company presented the Phase III clinical study protocol (Protocol No. D7960C00015, Version 1.0 dated 11 April 2025) along with the Local CSP Addendum IND-1: Version 1.0 dated 14 April 2025.

AZD0780 is a novel oral PCSK9 inhibitor—a small molecule drug designed to reduce low-density lipoprotein cholesterol (LDL-C) levels. Unlike existing PCSK9 inhibitors such as alirocumab and evolocumab, which are injectable biologics (monoclonal antibodies), AZD0780 is administered orally, offering a potentially more convenient treatment option for patients with cardiovascular risk.

The drug works by binding to a specific pocket in the C-terminal domain of the PCSK9 (Proprotein Convertase Subtilisin/Kexin Type 9) protein. This binding inhibits the interaction between PCSK9 and the LDL receptor (LDLR), thereby promoting the recycling of LDLRs to the cell surface. The result is enhanced clearance of LDL-C from the bloodstream, leading to lower cholesterol levels.

Following a detailed review, the expert panel found the trial design acceptable and recommended the grant of permission to proceed with the Phase III study as proposed by the company.

Also Read: CDSCO Panel Rejects Phase II Data for Reliance’s RelCoVax COVID-19 Booster Over Immunogenicity Gap

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How are Posting Orders Decided for Junior Doctors? Calcutta HC asks State

Kolkata: While considering a plea filed by three junior doctors challenging their posting orders, a single-judge bench of the Calcutta High Court recently directed the State Government to inform the Court about the criteria used for posting junior doctors in the hospitals.

The plea before the High Court has been filed by three junior doctors- Debashis Halder, Asfakulla Naiya, and Aniket Mahata. All of them were among prominent faces during the junior doctors’ protest following the brutal rape and murder of a PG resident doctor at RG Kar Medical College and Hospital.

Filing the plea, these doctors challenged their postings, alleging vindictiveness. These doctors, now senior doctors, received postings at hospitals, which were not selected by them during the counselling process in March.

The counselling process allows junior doctors to choose hospitals based on their rank on the merit list. However, after the State Health Department issued the final posting order in May, these doctors were shocked to find that they were assigned to hospitals that they did not choose during the counselling process.

Medical Dialogues had earlier reported that these three junior doctors at RG Kar Medical College and Hospital, Kolkatawere abruptly transferred to remote district hospitals just months after their initial postings. 

Dr. Debashis Haldar, Dr. Aniket Mahato, and Dr. Asfaqullah Naiya — were initially posted in February to Howrah, Hooghly, and Kolkata. However, in the final posting order, they were transferred to district hospitals in Malda, Purulia, and North Dinajpur, respectively.

Also Read: CBI tells HC No gangrape in RG Kar case, investigating larger conspiracy

They had alleged that this move was a retaliation for leading the RG Kar protest and challenged the Government’s decision before the High Court. As per the latest media report by Telegraph India, while considering the matter, Justice Basu on June 23 directed the State Government to respond and sought a verbal assurance from the State’s counsel that no disciplinary action would be taken against Dr. Mahata for not joining the hospital where he has been posted.

Telegraph India has reported that Dr. Mahata, an anesthesiologist, chose RG Kar Hospital. However, he was posted to Raigunj Government Medical College and Hospital.

While Dr. Naiya, an ENT specialist, chose Prafulla Chandra Sen Government Medical College in Arambagh, he was sent to Deben Mahato Government Medical College and Hospital in Purulia. Similarly, Dr. Halder, an anesthesiologist, was posted to Gazole Rural Hospital, instead of Howrah district hospital, which he selected during counselling.

Although all three doctors have challenged their postings, Dr. Mahata has not joined the hospital where he has been posted. Both Dr. Halder and Dr. Naiya have taken up their posts at the hospitals where they have been assigned.

The counsel for Dr. Mahata informed the Court that the State might initiate disciplinary proceedings against him for not joining his assigned post. Further, the counsel also submitted before the Court that two junior doctors who were below him on the merit list were posted to RG Kar Hospital, but Dr. Mahata was not. 

Taking note of the submissions, the HC bench sought verbal assurance from the State’s counsel that no action would be taken against Dr. Mahata till Monday. “I hope the state will not do anything contrary to what the counsel has said in the courtroom,” the bench observed.

Regarding the challenge against the posting order, Justice Basu told the State’s counsel, “Inform the court on Monday about the basis for posting junior doctors — the policy that is followed for postings.”

Also Read: Punishment Posting: Doctors who led RG Kar Protest transferred to remote areas

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TN Health Announces application Deadline for MBBS, BDS admissions 2025

Tamil Nadu- The Tamil Nadu (TN Health) has announced the last date of submission of applications for MBBS and BDS courses for the academic year 2025-2026. The notice in this regard has been issued on the official website of TN Health.

TN Health started the MBBS and BDS admission in Tamil Nadu Government Medical and Dental Colleges, Government quota seats in self-financing Medical and Dental colleges, ESIC Medical colleges, KK Nagar, Chennai, affiliated to the state Dr MGR Medical University & State private Universities 2025-26 session.

Also Read: TN Health Invites Applications For MBBS, BDS Admissions 2025, Know complete eligibility criteria, fee structure

Meanwhile, as per the recent notice, the last date of submission of application for MBBS and BDS courses for the academic year 2025-2026 is scheduled till 25 June 2025 till 5.00 PM. The application submission process began on 06 June 2025.

Along with this, the notice also stated an important note for the PWD candidates that the candidates under PWD category can apply with the existing disability certificate now as Regional Medical Centres, RGGGH, Chennai will start issuing these certificates only after the MCC/ DGHS starts with the application process. Therefore, the date of uploading the disability certificate obtained from Regional Medical Centres will be notified later.

PROCEDURE FOR FILLING AND SUBMISSION OF ONLINE APPLICATION FORM

The candidate should log in to the TN Health official website. The application forms will be available online from 06 June 2025 onwards. After submitting the filled-in online application, the candidates are advised to download their filled-in online application form for future reference.

1 Candidates have to fill in all the mandatory columns in the online application. All the relevant documents should be uploaded in PDF format. Candidates are instructed to submit the online application after filling up all the required fields.

2 Request for change in any particulars after submitting the online application form shall not be entertained under any circumstances.

3 Even if the candidate is provisionally selected for the MBBS & BDS admission, but is found to have failed in +1 examination, the provisional admission of the candidate automatically stands cancelled.

To view the notice, click the link below

https://medicaldialogues.in/pdf_upload/tn-health-announces-june-25-deadline-for-mbbs-bds-applications-for-2025-26-session-291708.pdf

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PGIMER Invites Applications for MSc Medical Biotechnology July 2025 Session- Know Complete Details Here

Chandigarh- The Postgraduate Institute of Medical Education & Research (PGIMER) is inviting applications for admission into the MSc (Medical Biotechnology) course for the July 2025 session. In this regard, PGIMER has released a prospectus detailing the number of seats, selection procedure, counselling and other important details.

As per the prospectus, the Department of Experimental Medicine and Biotechnology, PGIMER, Chandigarh, offers a two-year MSc (Medical Biotechnology) Course supported by the Department of Biotechnology (DBT), Government of India. The admissions for the MSc (Medical Biotechnology) teaching programme in the Department are through a centralised Graduate Aptitude TestBiotechnology (GAT-B) conducted for the DBT-supported PG Programmes in Biotechnology in participating institutions across India by the Regional Centre for Biotechnology (RCB), Faridabad. Therefore, only those candidates who have passed or are appearing for the qualifying examinations (BSc) are eligible to apply for this competitive entrance exam (GAT-B).

Also Read: HC orders water supply to PGI- Neurosciences Centre left idle since completion

ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA

1 BSc with 55% marks in any subject of Life/Biological Sciences for General category and 50% marks for the candidates belonging to SC/ST/OBC category or MBBS from a recognised University / Institute.

2 GATE scores more than the category-wise cut-off scores/marks recommended by the Result Finalisation committee organised by RCB and approved by DBT for GAT-B 2025.

3 Candidate must have a consolidated marksheet and a provisional BSc certificate at the time of counselling.

INSTRUCTIONS FOR APPLYING

3rd July, 2025 (Thursday) at 3 PM will be the First Counselling. The candidates must report by 2 PM at the Department of Experimental Medicine and Biotechnology, Research, PGIMER, Chandigarh, with all originals for verification of documents. If 3rd July, 2025, is declared a holiday at PGIMER, Chandigarh, then 4th July, 2025, will be the First Counselling.

For participating in the first counselling, the eligible candidates must apply on plain paper, enclosing copies of all relevant documents. The application must reach the Department of Experimental Medicine and Biotechnology, Research, PGIMER, Chandigarh, latest by 30th June, 2025 (Monday), 4 PM. The envelope must be labelled as Application for admission to MSc (Medical Biotechnology) programme.

Subsequently, the list of vacant seats will be declared and second counselling will be conducted on 5th August, 2025 (Tuesday). Against vacant seats, the eligible candidates may apply for second counselling on plain paper enclosing all documents, which must reach the department by 1st August, 2025 (Friday), 4 PM. Details regardingthe  second counselling will be subsequently notified on the departmental/Institute website.

DOCUMENTS

The list of documents required for the application is as follows-

1 10th Marksheet and Certificate.

2 12th Marksheet and Certificate.

3 Graduation Marksheet and Certificate.

4 GAT-B Rank Card.

5 SC/ST/OBC Certificate if belonging to the SC/ST/OBC category.

6 Migration Certificate from the Head of the Institution/University last attended.

The candidates are also required to produce all originals of the above certificates/documents for verification at the time of registration/admission. In the absence of any of the original certificates/documents, registration/admission shall not be allowed. In case on the last date of application, the BSc results of the applicants are not declared, the applicant must provide a sealed envelope of the marks and results attested by the competent authority of the institute/University. Alternatively, the result and marks can be confidentially emailed to by the competent authority of the Institute/University concerned. The applicant should also give a declaration that he/she will provide the result of the BSc examination that shows his/her eligibility for the course, latest by the last date of admission as declared by DBT for the 2025-2027 batch.

NUMBER OF SEATS

The maximum number of seats available in the MSc in Medical Biotechnology courses for the July 2025 session (ACADEMIC BATCH 25-27) is 10. Of which, a total of 5 seats are for UR category, 2 for OBC-NCL, 1 for SC, 1 for ST and 1 for EWS.

SELECTION PROCEDURE

After the declaration of the Result of GAT-B 2025, candidates will download the rank card/ score card from the RCB Faridabad website. The RCB website will also display the name of participating universities/institutes and courses being offered under DBT support and respective eligibility conditions. The rank card/score card holder will visit the PGIMER website for re-confirmation of eligibility conditions of admission. Eligible candidates will have to fill application form of the PGIMER as per their guidelines. After the display of the admission list by PGIMER, students will attend counselling conducted by PGIMER for seeking admission and completing the required formalities.

B.Sc. with 55% marks in any subject of Life/Biological Sciences for the General category and 50% marks for the candidates belonging to SC/ST/OBC category or MBBS from a recognised University / Institute. Admission to reserved category candidates will be as per the Government of India rules. Non-submission of eligibility proof latest by the time of admission will disqualify the candidate from getting admission.

COUNSELLING & ACADEMIC SESSION

The number of candidates to be considered for 1st counselling will be three times the total number of seats to be filled for each category of candidates, provided the candidates fulfil the cut-off percentage mentioned in the ‘DBT Guidelines’. The selection will be finalised only after the counselling of the candidates. Any candidate who is absent at the time of counselling will not be considered for admission. All the candidates must bring the original certificates at the time of counselling and joining.

JOINING

Selected candidates must join the course on the prescribed date as indicated in their admission letter. The selection of candidates who fail to join by the specified date shall automatically stand cancelled.

Under exceptional circumstances, a candidate may be allowed to join late, upto a maximum of one month, on the condition that he/she will make up the deficiency caused in his/her academic term due to late joining, by forfeiting his/her leave, during the first year of his/her admission, to which he/she will be entitled on joining the Institute, by the same number of days. For this, the candidates will be required to intimate the unavailed leave to the Registrar’s Office at the end of the first year and get the same adjusted by forfeiting the same amount of leave, before the end of the second year.

SUBMISSION OF THESIS/DISSERTATION

The candidates are required to submit a Thesis/dissertation in accordance with the rules governing the course. The students who fail to submit their theses/dissertations by the stipulated time will not be allowed to appear for the final theory as well as practical examination.

AGREEMENT BONDS, SURETIES AND CONTRACT

The MSc (Medical Biotechnology) candidates are required to execute an undertaking on non-judicial stamp paper of a minimum Rs 5/- value. Any candidate who joins the MSc (Medical Biotechnology) course and leaves the course midway will be penalised in the following manner-

S.NO

PERIOD AT WHICH RESIGNATION IS TENDERED/ACCEPTED

PENALTY (IN RUPEES)

1

Upto 2 years.

Rs 10,000/-

Meanwhile, two sureties, preferably from local residents, are required to be submitted at the time of admission on non-judicial stamp paper of Rs 25/-. Any candidate who fails to submit the same shall not be allowed to join the course. Sureties from Junior/Senior Residents are not acceptable. Formats for the same will be provided by the office at the time of the Appointment/ Joining Letter.

FEES AND DUES

The following dues are payable to the Institute by the candidates admitted to the MSc (Medical Biotechnology) course-

S.NO

SEMESTER

FEE STRUCTURE (PROVIDE THE BREAKUP OF FEE HEADS)

1

Semester-I

Registration fee: 500, Tuition fee: Rs. 170, Laboratory Fees: Rs 450, Amalgamated Fund: Rs. 360, Security: Rs1000/(Refundable) (total =2480)

2

Semester-II

Tuition fee: Rs. 170, Laboratory Fees: Rs 450, Amalgamated Fund: Rs 360 (total=Rs 980)

3

Semester-III

Tuition fee: Rs. 170, Laboratory Fees: Rs 450, Amalgamated Fund: Rs 360 (total=Rs 980)

4

Semester-IV

Tuition fee: Rs. 170, Laboratory Fees: Rs 450, Amalgamated Fund: Rs 360 (total=Rs 980)

To view the prospectus, click the link below

https://medicaldialogues.in/pdf_upload/pgi-invites-applications-for-msc-medical-biotechnology-july-2025-session-know-complete-details-here-290926.pdf

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58 Drug Batches, Including Dexona Fail CDSCO Quality Standards

New Delhi: In its continued effort to ensure drug safety and compliance, the Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) has flagged 58 batches of pharmaceutical products as Not of Standard Quality (NSQ) in its latest monthly alert for May 2025.

The list includes a range of commonly prescribed drugs, injectables, oral suspensions, and combination formulations from various manufacturers across India.

“As part of the continuous regulatory surveillance, drug samples are picked from sales/distribution point, analyzed and list of Not of Standard Quality (NSQ) drugs are displayed on CDSCO portal on monthly basis. The purpose of displaying the NSQ list is to make stakeholders aware about the NSQ batches identified in the market,” the apex drug regulatory body clarified in it’s official notice.

The alert covers findings from Central and Regional Drug Testing Laboratories (CDL/CDTL/RDTL), including CDL Kolkata, RDTL Guwahati, RDTL Chandigarh, CDTL Mumbai, and CDTL Indore.

Among the drugs flagged for quality issues are CALXIA-500 (Calcium Carbonate + Vitamin D3) tablets by Gidsha Pharmaceuticals – flagged for dissolution failure (CDL Kolkata); Relatively common injectables like Ondansetron, Rabeprazole Sodium, Pantoprazole, Ciprofloxacin, and Betamethasone Sodium Phosphate – failed tests related to particulate matter, clarity, pH, or assay. Sitagliptin & Metformin FDC (Sitajak-M) by Jackson Laboratories – failed assay test for Sitagliptin. Buprenorphine and Buprenorphine Hydrochloride Injections – flagged for spurious identification, particulate matter, and related substances. Fexofenadine (Fexodil 180 mg) and Pantoprazole tablets – flagged for dissolution failures.

Significantly, a product from Zydus Healthcare Limited – Dexamethasone Sodium Phosphate Injection (Dexona) – was reported as NSQ due to, “Particulate matter, Assay of Dexamethasone Phosphate and Description.”

In addition to injectables and tablets, oral suspensions, jellies, syrups, and probiotics were also among those reported. Notably, Sporlac Tablets (Probiotics) manufactured by J.B. Chemicals & Pharmaceuticals Ltd. were flagged for failing the “Identification of Bacillus clausii” test.

Other NSQ findings included issues of sterility, microbial limits, uniformity of weight, assay content, and dissolution, all of which are critical parameters under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940. The CDSCO defines NSQ drugs as, “The drugs that fail to meet the quality standards or specifications are known as Not of Standard Quality (NSQ) drugs.”

NOT OF STANDARD QUALITY (NSQ) ALERT FOR THE MONTH OF MAY-2025 (CDSCO/Central Laboratories)

S.No

Product/Drug Name

Batch No.

Manufacturing Date

Expiry Date

Manufactured By

NSQ Result

Reported by

CDSCO

Laboratory

1.

Calcium Carbonate 500 mg + VIT. D3 250 IU Tablets IP (CALXIA-500)

GTL1317

12/2024

11/2026

M/s. Gidsha Pharmaceuticals,

Plot No. 611, 612, Mega GIDC, Kharedi, Dahod 389151, Gujarat.

Dissolution (for Calcium)

CDL, Kolkata

2.

Calcium Carbonate 500 mg + VIT. D3 250 IU Tablets IP (CALXIA-500)

GTL1295

12/2024

11/2026

M/s. Gidsha Pharmaceuticals,

Plot No. 611, 612, Mega GIDC, Kharedi, Dahod 389151, Gujarat.

Dissolution (for Calcium)

CDL, Kolkata

3.

Calcium Carbonate 500 mg + VIT. D3 250 IU Tablets IP (CALXIA-500)

GTL1316

12/2024

11/2026

M/s. Gidsha Pharmaceuticals,

Plot No. 611, 612, Mega GIDC, Kharedi, Dahod 389151, Gujarat.

Dissolution (for Calcium)

CDL, Kolkata

4.

Vitamin B Complex

Injection 30 ml (WA-PLEX

)

111

12/2024

05/2026

M/s. Weismanna Health Care

Pvt. Ltd., Plot No. 44 &45,

Industrial Estate, Ongole523002 , Andhra Pradesh

Description and Particulate matter

CDL, Kolkata

5.

Ondansetron Injection IP 2 mg/ml

ONA12515

01/2025

12/2026

M/s. Nandani Medical

Laboratories Pvt. Ltd., 221/5, Bicholi Hapsi, Kanadia Road, Indore.

Particulate matter

CDL, Kolkata

6.

Rabeprazole Sodium Injection IP 20 mg/vial

MD23H27

08/2023

07/2025

M/s. Martin & Brown Bio

Sciences, K. No. 918/419,

Malkumajra, Nalagarh Road,

Baddi, Dist. Solan, (H.P.)

173205

pH, Clarity of

Solution,

Particulate matter,

Uniformity of

Weight, Assay of

Rabeprazole

Sodium and Description.

CDL, Kolkata

7.

Enzox Liquid Digestive Supplement

ES-24011/11

12/2024

05/2026

M/s.Tidal Laboratories Pvt.

Ltd. Patch-5, Phase-II

Gowalthai, Distt. Bilaspur174201 (H.P.), INDIA

Assay/Content of Pepsin activity.

CDL, Kolkata

8.

Ciprofloxacin Injection IP (0.2%w/v) (Ciprox)

2250946

02/2025

01/2028

M/s. Otsuka Pharmaceutical

India Private Limited, Village-

Vasana-Chacharwadi, Tal-

Particulate contamination.

CDL, Kolkata

Sanand, Dist.-Ahmedabad382213, India

9.

Dobutamine

Hydrochloride Injection IP

5 ml

DBA12404

08/2024

07/2026

M/s. Nandani Medical

Laboratories Pvt. Ltd., 221/5,

Bicholi Hapsi, Kanadia Road,

Indore

Particulate matter and Description

CDL, Kolkata

10.

Sitagliptin & Metformin

Tablets 50 mg + 1000 mg (Sitajack-M )

T-2916

09/2024

08/2026

M/s. Jackson Laboratories Pvt.

Ltd., 22-24, Majitha Road, Bye

Pass, Amritsar-143001 (India)

Assay of Sitagliptin

CDL, Kolkata

11.

Betamethasone Sodium

Phosphate Injection IP

(Betagin 1 ml)

P24L107

08/2024

07/2026

M/s. Paksons Pharmaceuticals

Private Limited, 36, Milestone,

Delhi Rohtak Road, Sankhol,

Bahadurgarh-124507, Haryana

Particulate matter,

Assay of

Betamethasone Sodium Phosphate and Description

CDL, Kolkata

12.

Pantoprazole for Injection

BP 40 mg

AA013026

06/2023

05/2025

M/s. ANG Lifesciences India

Ltd., Village: Kishanpura,

Nalagarh Road, Tehsil: Baddi,

Distt: Solan, HP-174101

Clarity and Colour of Solution

CDL, Kolkata

13.

Pantoprazole for Injection

BP 40 mg

AA013047

09/2023

08/2025

M/s. ANG Lifesciences India

Ltd. Village Kishanpura,

Nalagarh Road, Tehsil: Baddi,

Distt. Solan, HP-174101

Clarity and Colour of Solution

CDL, Kolkata

14.

Sodium Chloride Injection

U.S.P.(3% w/v )

(Hypertonic 3NS 100 ml)

G250146001

01/2025

12/2027

M/s. Vision Parental Pvt. Ltd.,

A-2-44,45 Sector-15, GIDA

Industrial Area, Gorakphur-

273209 (U.P.), India

Particulate Matter

CDL, Kolkata

15.

Pantoprazole Tablets IP 40 mg

0092

07/2024

06/2026

M/s. Hindustan Antibiotics Ltd., Pimpri, Pune-411018, India.

Dissolution and Description

CDL, Kolkata

16.

Fexofenadine Tablets IP (Fexodil 180 mg)

T-4029

01/2025

12/2026

M/s. Jackson Laboratories Pvt. Ltd., 22-24, Majitha Road, Bye

Pass, Amritsar-143001 (India)

Dissolution test after 10 min and after 30 min

CDL, Kolkata

17.

Cefixime Tablets IP 200 mg

B240875

06/2024

05/2026

M/s. Bochem Healthcare Pvt. Ltd. 83,84 Industrial Area,

Dewas Road Nagziri, Ujjain

456010 (M.P.) India

Test of “Water”

CDL, Kolkata

18.

Pantoprazole for Injection

BP 40 mg

AA013043

08/2023

07/2025

M/s. ANG Lifesciences India

Ltd., Village: Kishanpura,

Nalagarh Road, Tehsil: Baddi,

Distt. Solan, HP-174101

Clarity and colour of solution

CDL, Kolkata

19.

Tranexamic Acid Tablets IP (Trenaxa 500 )

18242021A

08/2024

07/2027

M/s.Macleods

Pharmaceuticals Ltd., Khasra No. 21,22,66,67 & 68, AhoYangtam, Namchepung, PO:

Ranipool, Sikkim-737135

Spurious

Identification and

Assay of

Tranexamic Acid

CDL, Kolkata

20.

Dexamethasone Sodium

Phosphate Injection IP

(Dexona)

N400726

06/2024

11/2025

M/s. Zydus Healthcare Limited,

At: PF 61 & 62, Sanand GIDC-

II Industrial Estate, Tal:

Sanand, Dist.: Ahmedabad382110, Gujarat, India

Particulate matter,

Assay of

Dexamethasone

Phosphate and

Description

CDL, Kolkata

21.

Bupivacaine

Hydrochloride in Dextrose

Injection USP 4 ml

17B24005

09/2024

08/2026

M/s. Radiant Parenterals Ltd.,

242/4, 5 & 6, G.I.D.C. Estate at

& Post Waghodia, DistVadodara, Gujarat-391760

pH, Bacterial Endotoxins Test, Particulate Matter in Injections and Description

CDL, Kolkata

22.

Vitamin B-Complex with

Vitamin C and Biotin

Capsules (Vitabon )

C-3465

11/2024

10/2026

M/s. Jackson Laboratories Pvt. Ltd., 22-24, Majitha Road, Bye

Pass, Amritsar-143001 (India).

Assay/content of

Calcium

Pantothenate

CDL, Kolkata

23.

Rabeprazole Sodium (EC)

& Domperidone (SR)

Capsules (Dorsai)

DYC-24007

04/2024

03/2026

M/s. DYCOTT Healthcare, Kh.

No-341/1, Vill Dasomajra, P.O.

Bhud, Baddi, Distt.-Solan

(HP)-173205

Dissolution of

Rabeprazole Sodium (acid stage), Dissolution of Rabeprazole Sodium (buffer stage) and Assay of

Rabeprazole

Sodium

CDL, Kolkata

24.

Buprenorphine Injection I.P. (Talgesic Injection)

BUP324002

06/2024

05/2026

M/s. Indus Pharma Pvt. Ltd.,

A-181, RIICO, Ghiloth, Alwar,

Rajasthan, 301705 (India)

Spurious

Identification and

Assay of

Buprenorphine

Hydrochloride, Particulate matter and Description

CDL, Kolkata

25.

Buprenorphin Injection I.P. (Noophin Injection )

LM18898

11/2022

10/2028

M/s. Cooper Pharma Limited, C-3, Industrial Area, Selaqui, Dehradun-248197 (U.K.).

Related

Substances,

Particulate matter,

Sterility , Assay of

Buprenorphine Hydrochloride eq. to Buprenorphine and Description

CDL, Kolkata

26.

Ondansertron Orally

Disintegrating Tablets IP

4 mg (ONVIN-4 MD

TABLETS )

RV24012

05/2024

04/2026

M/s. Rivpra Formulation Pvt.

Ltd., Plot No. 8, Sector-6A, IIE

SIDCUL, Haridwar-249403

(U.K.)

Related

Substances

CDL, Kolkata

27.

Aceclofenac &

Paracetamol Tablets

(Elzefen-P )

PC24021

03/2024

02/2026

M/s. Prochem

Pharmaceuticals Pvt. Ltd.,

140-141, Makkanpur,

Bhagwanpur, Roorkee, Distt.

Haridwar, Uttarakhand-247661

Assay of

Aceclofenac

CDL, Kolkata

28.

Zinc Sulphate Dispersible Tablets IP 20 mg

LMT240804

07/2024

06/2026

M/s. Life Max Cancer

Laboratories, Plot No. 106 &

106 A, Sector6A, IIE, SIDCUL,

Haridwar249403 (U.K)

Uniformity of

Dispersion &

Disintegration

RDTL, Guwahati

29.

METRONIDAZOLE

TABLETS IP (Martigyl400)

MT-24D03

04/2024

03/2026

M/s.Martin & Brown Biosciences, K. No. 918/419, Malkumajra, Nalagarh Road,

Baddi, Distt. Solan (H.P.)173205

Dissolution

RDTL, Guwahati

30.

Sodium Chloride Injection I.P. (0.9% w/v).. (NS)

01BF2354

03/2024

02/2027

M/s. Paschim Banga

Pharmaceutical (A Unit Of

FARISTA VANIJYA Pvt. Ltd.),

NH-31, Tin Mile Hat, Sonapur

Hat, P.S. Chopra, Dist:- Uttar

Dinajpur, Pin 733 214 (W.B.)

Sterillity & Description

RDTL, Guwahati

31.

Disposable Syringes (5ml) (SUI)

4051124S11

11/2024

10/2027

M/s Hindustan Ultra Care

Limited, Village, Mandana,

Jhalawar Road, NH-52, Kota

(Rajasthan), India – 325003

Sterillity

RDTL, Guwahati

32.

Telmisartan Tablets IP 40mg

251TTF025

12/2024

11/2027

M/s. Swiss Garnier Life

Sciences, 21-23, Industrial

Area, Mehatpur, Dist. Una, Himachal Pradesh- 174 315.

INDIA

Dissolution

RDTL, Guwahati

33.

Telmisartan Tablets IP 40 mg

251TTF036

12/2024

11/2026

M/s. Swiss Garnier Life

Sciences, 21-23, Industrial

Area, Mehatpur, Dist. Una, Himachal Pradesh- 174 315.

INDIA

Dissolution

RDTL, Guwahati

34.

Dicyclomine

Hydrochloride Tablets IP

10 mg

TK24-08

11/2024

10/2026

M/s.Om Biomedic Pvt. Ltd..,,

Plot No. 68, 69, 82 & 83,

Sector – 6A, IIE, SIDCUL,

Haridwar-249 403 (U.K.)

Description

RDTL, Guwahati

35.

ALBENDAZOLE

TABLETS I.P.

PGT24407

07/2024

06/2027

M/s. Affy Parenterals,

Vill,.Gullarwala, P.O.Baddi,

Distt. Solan-173205 (HP)

Dissolution of Albendazole

RDTL,

Chandigarh

36.

Sildenafil citrate oral jelly 5 gm (King of jelly)

25005

02/2025

01/2028

M/s Banson Pharmaceuticals

Pvt.Ltd., C-9, C10, Focal Point, Nabha-147201

Description and

Assay of Sildenafil Citrate

RDTL,

Chandigarh

37.

Ofloxacin Tablets IP 200 mg

DL-55

10/2024

09/2026

M/s. DUTCH Formulations, 32,

Industrial Area, Village Johron,

Kala-Amb, Tehsil Nahan,

District Sirmour, H.P.-17030

Dissolution and

Assay of Ofloxacin

RDTL,

Chandigarh

38.

Ofloxacin and Ornidazole

Tablets IP 200 mg+500mg

DL-136

12/2024

11/2026

M/s. DUTCH Formulations, 32, Industrial Area, Village Johron,

Uniformity of weight, Dissolution of Ornidazole,

RDTL,

Chandigarh

Kala-Amb, Tehsil Nahan,

District Sirmour, H.P.-17030

Dissolution of

Ofloxacin and Assay of Ofloxacin and Ornidazole

39.

Azithromycin Tablets IP 500 mg

DL-52

10/2024

09/2026

M/s. DUTCH Formulations, 32,

Industrial Area, Village Johron,

Kala-Amb, Tehsil Nahan,

District Sirmour, H.P.-17030

Dissolution,

Uniformity of weight and Assay of Azithromycin Dihydrate calculated as Azithromycin

RDTL,

Chandigarh

40.

Metronidazole Tablets IP 400 mg

B240578

05/2024

04/2027

M/s.Bochem Healthcare Pvt.

Limited, 83-84, Industrial Area,

Dewas Road, Nagziri, Ujjain

45601-(M.P.) India

Dissolution

RDTL,

Chandigarh

41.

Amoxycillin and

Potassium Clavulanate with Lactic Acid Bacillus

Tablets (Polo-625 LB

Tablets)

PL2406001

10/2024

11/2026

M/s. Paradox

Pharmaceuticals, Kachpura,

Baddi, Nalagarh Road Tehsil

Nalagarh Dist. Solan (HP)174103

Identification and

Assay of

Amoxycillin

Trihydrate,

Potassium

Clavulanate and

Lactic Acid Bacillus

RDTL,

Chandigarh

42.

Azithromycin Tablets IP

250 mg (RICK-250

TABLETS)

Not mentioned

NM

NM

M/s. Paradox

Pharmaceuticals, Kachpura,

Baddi, Nalagarh Road Tehsil

Nalagarh Dist. Solan (HP)174103

Identification,

Dissolution and

Assay of

Azithromycin

Dihydrate

Calculated as

Anhydrous

Azithromycin

RDTL,

Chandigarh

43.

Cefixime and Lactic Acid

Bacillus Dispersible

Tablets (Micoceff-LB 200

Tablets)

CFL2411001

11/2024

10/2026

M/s. Maxcel Life Care,

302/304 A, Gitanjali Apartment

Shanti Nagar, Mumbai

(Thane)-53.)

Identification and

Assay of Cefixime

Trihydate and

Lactic Acid Bacillus

RDTL,

Chandigarh

44.

Amoxycillin and

Potassium Clavulanate

Tablets IP (Rumentin-625

Tablets)

RUM241100

2

11/2024

10/2026

M/s. Rextuse Pharmaceuticals,

Ind. Area, Phase-I, Haridwar,

Uttrakhand 249401

Identification and

Assay of

Amoxycillin

Trihydrate and

Potassium

Clavulanate and

Dissolution of

Amoxycillin

Trihydrate and

Potassium

Clavulanate

RDTL,

Chandigarh

45.

Azithromycin Tablets IP

250 mg (RICK-250

TABLETS)

AZR2411010

01/2025

12/2026

M/s. Paradox

Pharmaceuticals, Kachpura,

Baddi, Nalagarh Road Tehsil

Nalagarh Dist. Solan (HP)174103

Identification,

Dissolution and the

Assay of

Azithromycin

RDTL,

Chandigarh

46.

Pantoprazole Gastro resistant &Domperidone prolonged release

Capsules IP

PZD242206

01/2025

12/2026

M/s. Paradox

Pharmaceuticals, Kachpura,

Baddi, Nalagarh Road Tehsil

Nalagarh Dist. Solan (HP)174103

Identification and

Assay of

Pantoprazole Sodium calculated as Pantoprazole and Domperidone and the Dissolution of Pantoprazole Sodium calculated as Pantoprazle.

RDTL,

Chandigarh

47.

Injection Oxytocin Vet. 100 ml Vial

Not mentioned

NM

NM

Not mentioned

pH and Sterility

RDTL,

Chandigarh

48.

Injection Oxytocin Vet. 50 ml Vial

Not mentioned

NM

NM

Not mentioned

pH and Sterility

RDTL,

Chandigarh

49.

Amoxycillin Trihydrate

Capsules I.P. (Zymox-500

(Yellow))

ZYMC-2407

04/2024

04/2026

M/s. Laborate Pharmaceuticals India Ltd., 51, Indl. Area, Panta

Sahib (H.P.) Manufatured for :gpp AZALADE (A division of

Laborate Pharmaceuticals India Ltd), 101, KohandAssandh Road, V.P.O.

Salwan, Haryana 132046.

“Assay/ content of

Amoxycillin”

CDTL-Mumbai

50.

SPORLAC Tablets

(Tablets of Probiotics)

MS024004

04/2024

05/2026

M/s.J.B. Chemicals &

Pharmaceuticals Ltd., Plot

No.25 & 26, Pharmacity, Selaqui, Dehradun, Uttarakhand.

“Identification of

Bacillus clausii”

CDTL-Mumbai

51.

Paracetamol 250 mg &

Mefenamic Acid 100 mg

Suspension, 60 ml

(Pacimol MF 250

Suspension)

INC014022R

04/2024

03/2026

M/s.Ipca Laboratories Ltd., Sejavta, Ratlam 457 001

“Assay of

Paracetamol and

Mefenamic Acid”

CDTL-Mumbai

52.

Clopidogrel & Aspirin Tablets (75 mg/ 75 mg)

GT241288

07/2024

06/2026

M/s. Theon Pharmaceuticals

Ltd., Vill. Saini Majra, Tehsil Nalagarh, Distt. Solan (H.P.) 174 101.

“Description”

CDTL-Mumbai

53.

MULTIPLE

ELECTROLYTES AND

DEXTROSE INJ. TYPE-1

I.P. (AROLYTE P)

1227421S

12/2024

11/2027

M/s. Shree KrishnaKeshav

Laboratories Ltd.,Amraiwadi

Road, Ahmedabad- 380 008,

“Assay of

Potassium”

CDTL-Mumbai

54.

Haematinic Capsules (R.B. TONE)

D40652

11/2024

10/2026

M/s. Medley Pharmaceuticals

Ltd., Plot No. 18 & 19, Zari

Causeway Road, Kachigam

Daman, INDIA

“Microbial limit test (Total combined yeasts/molds count)”

CDTL-Mumbai

55.

Aceclofenac Tablets I.P 100 mg

T4167

05/2024

04/2026

M/s. Zest Pharama, 275,

Sector “F” Sanwer Road, Indore – 452 015

Description

CDTL- Indore

56.

Paracetamol Tablet I.P 500 mg

KA1334

12/2023

11/2026

M/s. Karnataka Antibiotics &

Pharmaceuticals Limited, Plot

No. 37, Site No. 34/4, NTTF

Main Road, II Phase, Peenyas

Industrial Area, Bengaluru560058, India

Description

CDTL- Indore

57.

Betahistine

Dihydrochloride Tablet I.P

(CGHEST-8)

CT24250284

A

05/2024

04/2026

M/s. CMG Biotech Pvt. Ltd

(Unit II), Plot No. 58, Phase III,

Industrial Area, Sansarpur

Terrace, H.P – 176501

Description

CDTL- Indore

58.

Sucralfate Oral

Suspension

(AXID 200)

624-470

06/2024

05/2026

M/s.Zee Laboratories Ltd.,

47, Industrial Area, Paonta,

Sahib – 173 025

The sample does not conform to claim standards with respect to Description

CDTL- Chennai

Not of Standard Quality (NSQ) drugs:

The drugs that fail to meet the quality standards or specifications are known as Not of Standard Quality (NSQ) drugs.

(Further, the term ‘standards of quality’ is defined under the Section 16 (1) (a) of Drugs & Cosmetics Act, 1940, that the ‘standards of quality’ mean that the drug complies with the standards set out in the Second Schedule of the said Act.)

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6 months on, 5000 NEET PG 2024 candidates await Rs 50 crore security deposit refund, Doctors urge counselling committee to act

Jaipur: Pointing out that Rs 50 Crore security deposit collected from the candidates during NEET PG 2024 counselling has still not been refunded, the resident doctors have urged the State Medical Education Department for prompt action to ensure an early refund of the security amount.

Writing to the Chairman of the NEET PG 2024 Counselling Committee of Rajasthan on Thursday, the under the All Rajasthan RajMES Resident Doctors Association (ARRRDA) pointed out that during the NEET PG 2024 counselling process, more than 5000 candidates in Rajasthan had deposited a refundable security amount of Rs 1 lakh as per the procedure prescribed by the department.

However, the association pointed out that even though more than six months have passed since the said amount was deposited, the security amount of the students has not been refunded yet. 

“Not only is this a huge financial burden for the students, but the total amount involved is around ₹50 crores (5000 × ₹1,00,000/-), which is fully refundable,” ARRRDA mentioned in the letter.

Also Read: MCC Refunds Security Deposits to 9,012 NEET PG Counselling 2024 Candidates

The association also pointed out that the next National Eligibility-Entrance Test Postgraduate (NEET-PG) 2025 exam is proposed to be held in August and the students need financial resources to re-apply for the exam and prepare.

“Despite repeated reminders, the amount has not been refunded till now, which is extremely disappointing. Therefore, we humbly request you to direct the concerned department to ensure prompt and assured refund of this amount, so that the students can get timely relief and they can prepare for the upcoming exam without any hindrance,” the association urged the authorities in the letter.

Meanwhile, earlier this month, the Medical Counselling Committee (MCC) commenced the process of refunding the security deposit collected from the All India Quota students.

Medical Dialogues had earlier reported that issuing a notice, MCC informed all the postgraduate counselling candidates who participated in the All India Quota (AIQ) PG Counselling 2024 that the refund of Security Deposit of stray vacancy and Special Stray Vacancy Round of PG Counselling who are eligible for refund as per MCC rules and regulations / counselling scheme has been made by the financial custodian.

MCC also released a list of candidates whose Security Deposit of stray vacancy and Special Stray vacancy Round of PG Counselling has been refunded. As per the list, a total of 9012 candidates’ Security deposits have been refunded.

Later, noting that the process of refund of the security deposit of some candidates of PG Counselling 2024 could not be processed by the financial custodian due to various reasons such as bank account closure, refund failure, chargeback claims, rejection, or TAT (Turn-Around Time) being crossed, etc., MCC decided to reinitiate the process. For this, the Committee asked those candidates to submit their updated bank account details in the form of an Affidavit duly notarized on a court stamp paper. The completed Affidavit must be emailed on or before 30 June 2025.

Also Read: MCC seeks affidavit from NEET PG 2024 candidates to reinitiate Security Deposit Refund

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