IPC 304 A only applicable when doctors commit rash or negligent act: HC relief to doctor

Ernakulam: Quashing the criminal proceedings against a doctor under Section 304 A of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, the Kerala High Court recently observed that a medical practitioner would only be liable under this section if he had committed a rash or negligent act that resulted in the patient’s death.

“The law is thus well laid down that a medical practitioner can be prosecuted for medical negligence only if the procedure/treatment adopted by him is contrary to the general and approved practice. Moreover, for attracting the offence under Section 304A, the doctor should have committed a rash or negligent act,” observed the HC bench comprising Justice V.G. Arun.

“Here it is essential to note that, as far as rash acts are concerned, the criminality lies in running the risk of doing such an act with recklessness or indifference as to the consequences. Criminal negligence on the other hand is the gross and culpable neglect or failure to exercise that reasonable and proper care and precaution to guard against injury, either to the public generally or to an individual in particular which, having regard to all the circumstances out of which the charge has arisen, it was the imperative duty of the accused to have adopted. For attracting the offence under Section 304A, the death must also be the direct or proximate result of the rash or negligent act of the accused,” it further noted.

The plea was filed by the accused, an on-call Medical Officer, seeking quashment of criminal proceedings for medical negligence. The matter concerned a remand prisoner who suffered head injuries after a fall back in January 2021. Even though initially he was treated at local hospitals, due to a lack of beds, he was referred to the Government Medical College Hospital, Kottayam. 

After he suffered another seizure, the patient was referred for a neurosurgery consultation, and the Senior Resident examined him and informed the accused doctor about his condition over the phone. The accused doctor advised a CT scan and pre-operative investigations to be prepared for an emergency surgery.

The next day, when the accused’s duty ended at 8:00 a.m., another doctor (co-accused) assumed the charge as the on-call Medical Officer. It was alleged that even though an emergency surgery was advised after the worsening scan results, the procedure was delayed due to the unavailability of the operating theatre. The patient died in the afternoon on the same day, while awaiting surgery.

Consequently, an FIR was registered, and the patient’s death led to public protests alleging custodial torture, promoting a Crime Branch investigation. An Expert Panel was constituted to investigate the complaints against the doctors, and the panel concluded that the patient had not received reasonable medical care while undergoing the treatment. Accordingly, the accused doctors were booked under Section 304 A IPC.

Challenging this, the petitioner doctor filed the plea before the High Court. The accused’s counsel contended that even if the prosecution allegations were accepted, the offence under Section 304-A IPC would not be attracted because the golden hour, as far as a person with seizure was concerned, was six hours and the inordinate delay in providing proper treatment and medication worsened the patient’s condition.

It was argued that by the time the accused doctor was informed about the patient, already 18 hours had elapsed after the first CT-scan, and it was also the peak pandemic period, and the Government advisories prevented the accused from examining the patient physically. Further, the counsel submitted that in the appeal filed by the accused against the Expert Panel Report, the State Level Apex Expert Committee held that there was no gross and culpable negligence by the doctors at the Medical College in giving treatment to the patient.

On the other hand, the Public Prosecutor submitted that the matter was still being investigated and the investigating officer was not bound by the Apex Body’s findings. Therefore, if there were sufficient materials to prove the accused’s complicity, he could be prosecuted for the alleged offence.

While considering the matter, the HC bench opined that while negligence was an omission to do something which a reasonable man, guided upon those considerations which ordinarily regulated the conduct of human affairs, would do, or the doing of something which a prudent and reasonable man would not do, medical negligence occurred when a doctor breached his duty of care, causing harm to a patient.

The HC bench referred to the Supreme Court order in the case of Suresh Gupta (Dr.) v. Govt. of NCT of Delhi, where the Apex Court had held that “for fixing criminal liability on a doctor or a surgeon, the standard of negligence required to be proved must be so high as can be described as ‘gross negligence’ or ‘recklessness’. It was not merely lack of necessary care, attention and skill.”

The findings in the case of Suresh Gupta were affirmed by the Apex Court in the case of Jacob Mathew v. State of Punjab, where the Court observed that “A simple lack of care, an error of judgment or an accident, is not proof of negligence on the part of a medical professional. So long as a doctor follows a practice acceptable to the medical profession of that day, he cannot be held liable for negligence merely because a better alternative course or method of treatment was also available or simply because a more skilled doctor would not have chosen to follow or resort to that practice or procedure which the accused followed. When it comes to the failure of taking precautions, what has to be seen is whether those precautions were taken which the ordinary experience of men has found to be sufficient; a failure to use special or extraordinary precautions which might have prevented the particular happening cannot be the standard for judging the alleged negligence.”

Further referring to other judicial precedent, the HC bench observed that a medical practitioner can be prosecuted for medical negligence only if the procedure/treatment adopted by him is contrary to the general and approved practice. Moreover, for attracting the offence under Section 304A, the doctor should have committed a rash or negligent act.

The HC bench observed that in this case, the allegation against the petitioner doctor was about the failure to provide timely treatment.

 “Indisputably, there was delay in bringing the patient to the Medical College Hospital after the first seizure. Even after admitting the patient, petitioner was informed about his condition only by 05:20 am on 13.01.2021. Immediately the petitioner directed to conduct CT scan, since no decision could be taken based on the earlier CT scan, which was conducted many hours back and when the patient was in a much better condition. The CT scan report was received at 07:45 am and the petitioner advised for immediate surgery. The petitioner cannot also be attributed with gross negligence for his failure to examine the patient physically since the Covid related SoPs prevented such examination. Further, the petitioner’s duty time ended by 8 am and the delay in conducting the surgery occurred due to nonavailability of operation theatre. Pertinent in this context to note that the Expert Panel had only opined that the patient had not received reasonable standard of care while under treatment in Government Medical College, Kottayam, without naming any particular doctor. Even that opinion of the Expert Panel has lost its relevance in view of the conclusive unanimous opinion of the State Level Apex Body that there was no gross and culpable negligence from the part of the treating doctors for giving treatment to *** (patient).”

Accordingly, the bench observed that the criminal proceedings against the accused doctor were liable to be quashed. It stated,

“In the light of the above undisputed facts, and in view of the law laid down by the Apex Court, it can unhesitatingly be held that the prosecution of the petitioner for the offence under Section 304A amounts to an abuse of process of court. As held by the Supreme Court in State of Haryana and Others v. Bhajan Lal and Others [1992 SCC (Cri) 426], an FIR is liable to be quashed when the allegations, even if accepted in their entirety, do not make out the ingredients for constituting the offence alleged against the accused.”

“For the aforementioned reasons, the Crl.M.C is allowed. FIR and all further proceedings against the petitioner in Crime No.10 of 2021 of the Crime Branch, CU-II Unit, Ernakulam are quashed,” the HC bench further noted.

To view the order, click on the link below:

https://medicaldialogues.in/pdf_upload/kerala-hc-ipc-304-a-298145.pdf

Also Read: Some doctors disregard human life, maligning noble profession: HC refuses to quash FIR under IPC 304A against Specialist

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Favourable Outcomes are reported after Patellofemoral Arthroplasty with the Arthrex iBalance – A Third Generation Implant: study

Patellofemoral arthroplasty (PFA) is an attractive option for patients who have isolated patellofemoral disease with the goal of reproducing normal joint function and kinematics while relieving pain, preserving the tibiofemoral joint, and providing longevity.

Outcomes of many different implants and techniques, ranging from first-generation inlay design, to second-generation on lay design and now robotic or navigated techniques, have been described in the literature with mixed results.

Elizabeth C. Bond et al conducted a study to assess the functional outcomes and revision rates of primary PFA with a third-generation implant with short- to medium-term follow-up.

The authors retrospectively reviewed the records of 49 patients (70 knees) undergoing PFA with the iBalance system by a single surgeon at a quaternary center for demographic and surgical data, as well as complications and revision rates. Patient-reported outcome scores were then collected.

Key findings of the study were:

• The population was majority female (81.6%) with a median age of 50 years.

• Four knees were revised to a total knee arthroplasty (5.7%) at an average time point of 2.3 years postoperatively (range: 1.3-3.5 years).

• The median Single Assessment Numeric Evaluation score at the time of follow-up was 82.5, while the median Kujala score was 72.

• Lower preoperative Kellgren-Lawrence grade was significantly associated with lower Knee Injury and Osteoarthritis Outcome Scores in all 5 domains (P < .05 for all).

• Additional procedures were required in 17 knees (24.3%), in most cases to improve patella tracking.

The authors concluded – “This study is, to our knowledge, the first to examine the short term outcome of the iBalance PFA system. The results show favorable PROs in this group consistent with other 2nd and 3rd generation PFA implants along with a revision rate similar to its prosthetic peers. We plan to continue following our patients in order to report longer-term outcomes of this system.” 

Further reading:

Outcomes After Patellofemoral Arthroplasty with the Arthrex iBalance – A Third Generation Implant Elizabeth C. Bond et al Arthroplasty Today 33 (2025) 101666 https://doi.org/10.1016/j.artd.2025.101666

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HCQ Shows Promise in Reducing Proteinuria in Primary Glomerular Diseases: Study

A new study published in BMC Nephrology found that hydroxychloroquine (HCQ) therapy demonstrated a trend toward reducing proteinuria in patients with primary glomerular diseases. Importantly, HCQ did not significantly impact estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR), indicating preserved kidney function during treatment. The study also highlighted HCQ’s favorable safety profile, making it a promising adjunct therapy in managing proteinuria in these patients.

Proteinuria is a key marker of kidney damage in glomerular diseases and is linked to progression to chronic kidney failure. Conventional treatments often involve immunosuppressants with variable efficacy and potential adverse effects. The potential role of HCQ, traditionally used in autoimmune conditions, offers an alternative pathway targeting inflammatory and immunological mechanisms involved in glomerular injury.

While the reduction in proteinuria was a trend rather than statistically definitive, the findings encourage further clinical trials to clarify HCQ’s efficacy and long-term impact on kidney outcomes. The favorable safety observed in this study supports continued exploration of HCQ as a low-risk therapeutic option in nephrology.

Reference:
BMC Nephrology. (2025). Hydroxychloroquine therapy and proteinuria in primary glomerular diseases. https://bmcnephrol.biomedcentral.com/articles/10.1186/s12882-025-042XX-X [API]

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D-LECS Shows Promise Over endoscopic resection with Fewer Complications, Finds Study

Japan: Researchers have found in a new study that duodenal laparoscopyendoscopy cooperative surgery is a promising procedure offering better outcomes and a lower complication rate compared to endoscopic resection (ER). However, its indications and feasibility should be evaluated on a case-by-case basis.

The study, published in the Asian Journal of Endoscopic Surgery by Dr. Koji Shindo and colleagues from the Department of Surgery and Oncology at Kyushu University, Japan, aimed to assess the safety and viability of duodenal laparoscopy-endoscopy cooperative surgery (D-LECS). The team compared its short-term outcomes with those of traditional ER techniques in patients with duodenal tumors, focusing on complication rates and oncological efficacy.

The retrospective single-center study analyzed data from 30 patients treated between March 2013 and March 2023. Of these, 15 patients underwent D-LECS, while the remaining 15 received ER, which included endoscopic mucosal resection (EMR), endoscopic submucosal dissection (ESD), or a hybrid ESD approach. In two ER cases, procedures were observed laparoscopically without any intervention such as suturing.

The study revealed the following findings:

  • Two patients in the D-LECS group required conversion to open surgery to avoid potential injury to the ampulla of Vater.
  • The overall operation time was significantly longer for the D-LECS group.
  • Endoscopy time was similar between the D-LECS and ER groups.
  • The length of postoperative hospital stay was comparable in both groups.
  • The ER group had a significantly higher rate of moderate-to-severe complications (Clavien–Dindo grade II or higher) compared to the D-LECS group.
  • Piecemeal resections and positive resection margins were observed in both groups, with no significant difference.
  • One patient in each group experienced tumor recurrence.
  • In the D-LECS group, one patient with positive resection margins who refused additional surgery later died of duodenal cancer.

The findings highlight the potential benefits of D-LECS in managing duodenal tumors, especially in terms of safety and procedural outcomes. However, the authors emphasize the importance of individualized evaluation to determine whether D-LECS is suitable for each patient, as factors such as tumor location and risk of complications must be considered.

“Overall, the study supports D-LECS as an effective alternative to ER, offering improved safety without compromising oncological outcomes, and highlights the need for further research to refine patient selection criteria,” the authors concluded.

Reference:

Shindo, K., Ohuchida, K., Nagasue, T., Ogino, H., Horioka, K., Moriyama, T., Nagayoshi, K., Mizuuchi, Y., Ikenaga, N., Nakata, K., Oda, Y., & Nakamura, M. (2024). Efficacy of Laparoscopic and Endoscopic Cooperative Surgery Compared to Endoscopic Resection for Duodenal Tumor Treatment. Asian Journal of Endoscopic Surgery, 18(1), e70130. https://doi.org/10.1111/ases.70130

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Hyperbaric Oxygen Therapy Enhances Hearing Recovery in Sudden Sensorineural Hearing Loss Patients: Study

Researchers found that the application of hyperbaric oxygen therapy (HBOT) in addition to current medical treatment significantly improves hearing gain in the case of sudden sensorineural hearing loss (SSNHL). SSNHL, an acute hearing impairment happening in thousands of individuals each year, is a challenging condition with unclear pathogenesis and variable responsiveness to treatment. The study was recently published in the journal Laryngoscope by Issac L. and colleagues.

Systematic review entailed extensive search on major databases, such as PubMed, EMBASE, CENTRAL, MEDLINE, Google Scholar, Web of Science, and ClinicalTrials.gov, for publications up to May 7, 2025. The review was based on the PRISMA (Preferred Reporting Items for Systematic Reviews and Meta-Analyses) guidelines. Two independent reviewers screened and selected eligible studies and extracted data. Meta-analysis was conducted using a random-effects model to combine odds ratios (ORs) for recovery of hearing.

The review consisted of 20 studies, including 16 randomized controlled trials (RCTs) and four prospective non-randomized studies. A total of 1,087 patients who underwent HBOT and 600 medical therapy alone-treated patients were assessed.

Key Findings

• The meta-analysis consisted of ten studies and demonstrated convincing evidence favoring the application of HBOT in conjunction with MT alone, including steroids.

• Patients treated with HBOT and medical therapy had 2.61 times greater chances of hearing improvement compared to those treated with medical therapy only (OR 2.61, 95% CI 1.86–3.68, p < 0.001).

• Subgroup analysis between HBOT + systemic steroids (SS) and SS alone revealed HBOT was linked with better outcomes (OR 2.54, 95% CI 1.63–3.97, p < 0.001).

• When HBOT + SS + intratympanic steroids (ITS) was contrasted with SS + ITS alone, the probability of recovery of hearing was still significantly higher for the HBOT group (OR 2.64, 95% CI 1.39–5.02, p < 0.001).

• It is highly suggestive of the fact that HBOT improves the effectiveness of both systemic and intratympanic steroid therapy for SSNHL.

This meta-analysis and systematic review came to the conclusion that standard medical therapy supplemented with hyperbaric oxygen therapy significantly enhances hearing outcomes in patients with sudden sensorineural hearing loss. These findings support the inclusion of HBOT in the treatment protocol in suitable patients.

Reference:

Alter, I. L., Hamiter, M., Han, J., Leu, C. S., Usseglio, J., & Lalwani, A. K. (2025). Hyperbaric Oxygen and Sudden Sensorineural Hearing Loss: A Systematic Review and Meta-Analysis. The Laryngoscope, 10.1002/lary.32472. Advance online publication. https://doi.org/10.1002/lary.32472

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Tildrakizumab Shows Significant Efficacy in Psoriatic Arthritis Phase 3 Trials

Phase 3 trials have demonstrated that tildrakizumab 100mg significantly improved ACR20 response rates in patients with active psoriatic arthritis at 24 weeks compared to placebo, marking a promising advancement in PsA treatment.

Treatment with tildrakizumab 100 mg (ILUMYA) resulted in greater improvements in PsA signs and symptoms at
Week 24 compared to treatment with placebo. Both the INSPIRE-1 and INSPIRE-2 studies achieved the primary
endpoint, with a higher proportion of patients in the INSPIRE-1 and INSPIRE-2 studies treated with tildrakizumab
achieving ACR20 responses at week 24, compared to those receiving placebo (p < 0.05).


“We are excited to share that both the INSPIRE-1 and INSPIRE-2 clinical trials have successfully met their primary
endpoints. These top-line results reinforce the therapeutic potential of ILUMYA as a treatment option for patients
with active psoriatic arthritis. We extend our sincere gratitude to the patients, healthcare professionals and
administrators whose contributions made the studies possible. We look forward to sharing the complete clinical data
in the near future,” said Marek Honczarenko, MD, PhD, Senior Vice President and Head of Global Specialty
Development at Sun Pharma.

Safety data in the studies was consistent with the well-documented safety profile of ILUMYA, which is approved for
the treatment of adults with moderate-to-severe plaque psoriasis who are candidates for systemic therapy or
phototherapy. No new safety signals were identified in the INSPIRE-1 and INSPIRE-2 studies.

Findings from the INSPIRE studies will be presented at upcoming medical conferences and published in a peerreviewed medical journal. Use of tildrakizumab 100 mg (ILUMYA) in psoriatic arthritis is not approved, and its
safety and efficacy have not been evaluated by regulatory authorities.

About the INSPIRE-1 and INSPIRE-2 Phase 3 studies

The INSPIRE-1 and INSPIRE-2 are both 52-week global, multicenter, randomized, double-blind, single-dose,
placebo-controlled Phase 3 studies aimed at assessing the efficacy and safety of tildrakizumab 100 mg (ILUMYA®)
in adult patients with active psoriatic arthritis. The INSPIRE-1 enrolled patients having prior exposure to an antiTNF agent while the INSPIRE-2 enrolled anti-TNF naïve patients. A total of over 800 adult patients were enrolled
for the two studies from clinical sites in the US, Europe and Asia. Patients were randomized to receive either
tildrakizumab 100 mg (ILUMYA®) or placebo.
An induction dose was not administered in either study. Study
participants were permitted to use concomitant methotrexate or leflunomide, provided the dose remained stable
throughout the trial. In the INSPIRE-1 and INSPIRE-2 studies, tildrakizumab 100 mg (ILUMYA®) was administered
at Week 0 and then every 12 weeks. In contrast, in Phase 3 studies for chronic plaque psoriasis, the treatment schedule
included doses in Week 0, Week 4, and then every 12 weeks thereafter. ILUMYA® is approved by the regulatory
Agencies for the indication of chronic plaques psoriasis.
The primary endpoint for both studies is the proportion of participants achieving an ACR20 response at Week 24.
The key secondary efficacy endpoints at 24 weeks include ACR50, ACR70, and PASI75 and improvement. Learn
more about the studies at clinicaltrials.gov (INSPIRE-1 NCT04314544 and INSPIRE-2 NCT04314531).
The ACR20 is a composite measure defined as a 20 percent improvement in both the number of tender and number
of swollen joints and a 20 percent improvement in three of the following five criteria: patient global assessment,
physician global assessment, functional ability measure (most often HAQ-DI), visual analog pain scale, and
erythrocyte sedimentation rate or C-reactive protein (CRP). ACR50 and ACR70 are the same measurement with
improvement levels of 50 percent and 70 percent, respectively.

About Psoriatic Arthritis (PsA)

Psoriatic arthritis (PsA) is a chronic (long-lasting or recurring) disease related to the immune system. It causes
swelling, pain, and stiffness in joints and entheses (places where tendons and ligaments connect to bones). Psoriatic
arthritis can develop at any age. Psoriatic arthritis can occur regardless of the severity of psoriasis (mild, moderate,
or severe). Roughly 1 in 3 people living with psoriasis also have psoriatic arthritis [3]; typically, with psoriasis
developing before psoriatic arthritis. While as many as 2.4 million Americans live with psoriatic arthritis, more
than 15% of people living with psoriasis may also have undiagnosed psoriatic arthritis.

About ILUMYA® (tildrakizumab-asmn)

ILUMYA (tildrakizumab-asmn) is a humanized lgG1/k monoclonal antibody designed to selectively bind to the p19
subunit of interleukin-23 (IL-23) and inhibit its interaction with the IL-23 receptor, leading to inhibition of the release
of pro-inflammatory cytokines and chemokines. ILUMYA is indicated for the treatment of adults with moderate-to-severe plaque psoriasis who are candidates for systemic therapy or phototherapy, in the United States and other countries.

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Mfn2 and Preeclampsia: Study Exploring a Potential Game Changer in Maternal Health: Study

Recent study investigates the expression of mitofusin 2 (Mfn2) in placentas and peripheral blood from patients with early-onset preeclampsia (eoPE) and late-onset preeclampsia (loPE), exploring its potential as a diagnostic and therapeutic target for preeclampsia. Preeclampsia, a serious condition occurring after 20 weeks of gestation, presents significant morbidity and mortality risks, particularly differentiating between eoPE (before 34 weeks) and loPE (after 34 weeks) due to varying placental and maternal pathophysiologies.

Role of Mfn2 in Preeclampsia

Mfn2, a mitochondrial outer membrane protein critical for mitochondrial dynamics, was previously noted to be downregulated in preeclampsia, associated with increased apoptosis and mitochondrial dysfunction. The study emphasizes the differences in placental pathology between eoPE and loPE, highlighting impaired remodeling of uterine spiral arteries in eoPE, leading to ischemia and hypoxia. In contrast, loPE presents with maintained or higher placental perfusion levels.

Mfn2 Expression Analysis

Quantitative assessments revealed a significant decrease in Mfn2 mRNA levels in placentas from eoPE patients compared to both loPE and normal control groups, while loPE did not show significant downregulation compared to controls. Peripheral blood analyses indicated higher levels of Mfn2 protein in both preeclampsia groups compared to controls, with eoPE showing the highest levels. Notably, Mfn2 levels were positively correlated with the severity of preeclampsia, such as systolic and diastolic blood pressure and proteinuria, with stronger correlations in eoPE. The findings suggest a stratification in the role of Mfn2 between the two conditions, establishing that the reduction of Mfn2 in eoPE is indicative of significant mitochondrial dysfunction, while the elevated serum levels in both preeclampsia types may reflect a compensatory response to placental mitochondrial damage. Moreover, these elevated Mfn2 levels were negatively correlated with birth weight and Apgar scores, indicating poor pregnancy outcomes associated with elevated Mfn2 levels.

Conclusion and Future Directions

In summary, this investigation highlights Mfn2’s potential as a biomarker for preeclampsia severity and progression, distinguishing the distinct roles of mitochondrial dysfunction in eoPE and loPE. The findings support the hypothesis that early identification of impaired Mfn2 expression could facilitate enhanced diagnostic and therapeutic strategies for preeclampsia management, advocating for further research to validate these findings in larger cohorts and longitudinal studies.

Key Points

– -Expression Analysis of Mfn2-: Significant downregulation of Mfn2 mRNA levels was identified in placentas from patients with early-onset preeclampsia (eoPE) when compared to both late-onset preeclampsia (loPE) and normal control samples, while loPE did not exhibit significant differences in Mfn2 levels compared to controls.

– -Peripheral Blood Findings-: Elevated Mfn2 protein levels were observed in peripheral blood from both eoPE and loPE patients compared to controls, with eoPE showing the highest serum Mfn2 levels. This suggests a potential compensatory mechanism in response to placental mitochondrial damage.

– -Correlation with Disease Severity-: Mfn2 levels exhibited positive correlations with the severity of preeclampsia indicators such as systolic and diastolic blood pressure, as well as proteinuria. These correlations were found to be more robust in the eoPE cohort, indicating that altered Mfn2 expression may reflect the severity of the condition.

– -Implications for Pregnancy Outcomes-: Elevated Mfn2 levels in both types of preeclampsia were negatively correlated with birth weight and Apgar scores, suggesting that higher Mfn2 may be associated with adverse pregnancy outcomes and poorer fetal health.

– -Differentiation of Pathophysiology-: The study emphasizes the divergent mechanisms of placental pathology between eoPE and loPE, with eoPE characterized by impaired remodeling of uterine spiral arteries, leading to ischemic conditions, whereas loPE maintains or improves placental perfusion levels.

– -Future Research Directions-: The findings propose Mfn2 as a potential biomarker for assessing preeclampsia severity and progression, underscoring the need for further investigations in larger cohorts and longitudinal studies to validate Mfn2’s utility in diagnostic and therapeutic approaches for preeclampsia.

Reference –

Dandan Sun et al. (2025). A Mitochondrial Regulator Protein, Mitofusin 2, Is Elevated In The Maternal Blood Of Women With Preeclampsia. *BMC Pregnancy And Childbirth*, 25. https://doi.org/10.1186/s12884-025-07663-4.

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75 percent MBBS fee hike at Odisha private medical colleges

Bhubaneswar: Medical education in Odisha is going to get costlier as an announcement has been made regarding a steep fee hike for the MBBS and PG medical courses in the private medical colleges across the State.

MBBS fees at three private medical colleges, including Hi-Tech Medical College Bhubaneswar, DRIEMS Medical College Cuttack, and Hi-Tech Medical College Rourkela, have increased the MBBS fees by approximately 75 percent.

The Odisha Joint Entrance Examination (OJEE) Authority released the revised fee structure after a notification was issued in this regard by the Department of Skill Development and Vocational Education.

The Government has implemented the fee hike based on the Odisha Professional Educational Institutions (Regulation of Admission & Fixation of Fee) Act, 2007, and based on the recommendation of the Fee Structure Committee in its 7th, 8th, 9th, and 12th meeting held on 10.11.2023, 30.09.2024, 26.11.2024, and 14.07.2025, respectively. It will be implemented w.e.f. academic session 2025-2026.

Also Read: No MBBS, PG medical fee hike this year in Maharashtra Private Medical Colleges

MBBS Fee Hike: 

As per the notifications issued on the 11th and 16th of August, 2025, the MBBS fees at DRIEMS Institute of Health Sciences and Hospital, Cuttack have been increased from Rs 6,50,000 (as per the previous fee structure) to Rs 9,08,000 for the upcoming three years (from the academic year 2025-2026 to 2027-2028).

At Hi-Tech Medical College & Hospital, Bhubaneswar, MBBS fees have been increased from Rs 6,50,000 to Rs 11,56,000. For the Hi-Tech Medical College & Hospital, Rourkela, the MBBS fee has been hiked from Rs 5,50,000 to Rs 8,54,000 from the academic year 2025-2026.

SI. No.

Name of the Institute

Name of the Course

Previous fee structure

Fee Structure prescribed by the Government w.e.f. academic session 2025-26 to 2027 28

1.

DRIEMS Institute of Health Sciences and Hospital, Cuttack

MBBS

Rs.6,50,000/-

Rs.9,08,000/-

2.

Hi-Tech Medical College Hospital, Bhubaneswar

MBBS

Rs.6,50,000/-

Rs. 11,56,000/

3.

Hi-Tech Medical College & Hospital, Rourkela

MBBS

Rs. 5,50,000/-

Rs. 8,54,000/-

Fee Hike in PG Clinical & Para-Clinical Courses: 

As per the notification issued on August 16, the fees for PG Anatomy/Physiology/Biochemistry at Hi-Tech Medical College and Hospital, Bhubaneswar has been increased from Rs 4,50,000 to Rs 6,93,000. Similarly, fees for PG Para-clinical and Clinical courses at the institute has been increased from Rs 7,15,000 to Rs 8,67,000 and Rs 17,33,500 respectively. 

In the case of Hi-Tech Medical College & Hospital, Rourkela, the fees for PG Para-Clinical and PG Clinical courses have been fixed at Rs 6,41,000 and Rs 12,81,000 w.e.f. from the academic session 2025-2026.

As per the latest media report by The Daily Jagran, the Odisha Parents’ Federation has strongly opposed the fee hike. Criticising the move, the President of the Federation, Vasudev Bhatt, compared the fee hike to the imposition of an “American-style 75 percent tax” on education. He called the fee increase a form of educational commercialization and warned to launch a strong protest by the Federation if the decision is not reversed.

Also Read: Allahabad HC stays Mid-Session MBBS Fee Hike

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9-year-old dies of Rare Brain Infection in Kerala

Following the death of a 9-year-old girl from amoebic encephalitis— a rare and often fatal brain infection caused by free-living amoeba commonly found in contaminated water, health authorities in Kozhikode have issued a high alert.

The child was first admitted to a local hospital last week with a high fever. As her condition worsened rapidly, she was shifted to Kozhikode Medical College. Despite treatment, she succumbed on the same day.

According to health officials, this is the fourth case reported from Kozhikode
this year — raising concerns about possible contaminated water sources in the
district. Efforts are now underway to trace the exact pond or water body where
the infection may have been contracted. Doctors explain that the infection is
usually caused by Naegleria fowleri, often referred to as the “brain-eating
amoeba.”

It thrives in warm freshwater lakes, rivers, and ponds. Infection
occurs when contaminated water enters the nose, usually during swimming or
diving, before reaching the brain. What makes it dangerous?

Symptoms such as severe
headache, fever, vomiting, stiff neck, and confusion appear suddenly,
progressing rapidly to coma. The fatality rate stands at over 97%, even with
treatment. Is it treatable?

Doctors use antifungal drugs like amphotericin B,
often in combination with miltefosine and other medicines, but survival remains
rare. Early detection is critical. How can you stay safe?

Avoid swimming or
watersports in warm freshwater bodies. Never use tap water in nasal rinsing
devices (like neti pots) — only distilled or sterilized water. Ensure proper
chlorination of swimming pools. Health experts emphasize: If you develop sudden
fever or headache after swimming in freshwater, seek medical help immediately.

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Health Bulletin 18/August/2025

Here are the top health stories of the day:

Tirunelveli Medical College doctor removed over alleged fabrication of Road Accident Case

A doctor at Tirunelveli Medical College Hospital (TvMCH), accused of fabricating medical records by falsely stating that the road accident victim was intoxicated at the time of the incident, has been removed from his position.

The action followed a petition filed by the patient, Bala Sundararajan, to the District Collector, Dr. K.P. Karthikeyan, and the Chief Minister’s Special Cell, seeking action against the doctor.

For more details, check out the full story on the link below: 

Tirunelveli MCH doctor removed for falsely implicating patient


9-year-old dies of Rare Brain Infection in Kerala

Following the death of a 9-year-old girl from amoebic encephalitis— a rare and often fatal brain infection caused by free-living amoeba commonly found in contaminated water, health authorities in Kozhikode have issued a high alert.

The child was first admitted to a local hospital last week with a high fever. As her condition worsened rapidly, she was shifted to Kozhikode Medical College. Despite treatment, she succumbed on the same day.

According to health officials, this is the fourth case reported from Kozhikode this year, raising concerns about possible contaminated water sources in the district. Efforts are now underway to trace the exact pond or water body where the infection may have been contracted. Doctors explain that the infection is usually caused by Naegleria fowleri, often referred to as the “brain-eating amoeba.”

It thrives in warm freshwater lakes, rivers, and ponds. Infection occurs when contaminated water enters the nose, usually during swimming or diving, before reaching the brain. What makes it dangerous?

Symptoms such as severe headache, fever, vomiting, stiff neck, and confusion appear suddenly, progressing rapidly to coma. The fatality rate stands at over 97%, even with treatment. Is it treatable?

Doctors use antifungal drugs like amphotericin B, often in combination with miltefosine and other medicines, but survival remains rare. Early detection is critical. How can you stay safe?

Avoid swimming or watersports in warm freshwater bodies. Never use tap water in nasal rinsing devices (like neti pots) — only distilled or sterilized water. Ensure proper chlorination of swimming pools. Health experts emphasize: If you develop sudden fever or headache after swimming in freshwater, seek medical help immediately.

Tracheostomy without consent, consultation- Consumer Court dismisses Rs 25 lakh claim against ENT surgeon, Karnataka Hospital

Reiterating the observations of the National Consumer Court that no medical negligence can be attributed against a competent surgeon if an emergency operation was conducted to save the patient, the State Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission, Karnataka, recently exonerated an ENT surgeon and a private hospital from charges of medical negligence while treating a patient diagnosed with Ludwig Angina.

The complainant alleged that his wife died after the ENT surgeon performed a Tracheostomy without consent and without consulting other doctors. However, the consumer court noted that the patient’s oxygen level had dipped, and the primary duty of the ENT surgeon was to make an airway, which could be done only by operating on the patient by Tracheostomy.

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Tracheostomy without consent, consultation- Consumer Court junks Rs 25 lakh claim against ENT surgeon, Karnataka Hospital


Obesity Becoming Major Health Threat, PM Modi Calls for Action

Prime Minister Narendra Modi on Friday said obesity is emerging as a major challenge for the country, and urged everyone to contribute to the fight against it.

Addressing the nation from the ramparts of the Red Fort on the 79th Independence Day, he warned that according to experts, one in every three people will suffer from obesity in the coming years and reiterated his previous suggestion to buy 10 per cent less oil for cooking.

“When I speak of fitness, when I speak of sports, I also wish to place before you a matter of concern. Obesity is becoming a very grave crisis for our nation, and every family in our country should take it seriously. We must protect ourselves from obesity, the news agency PTI reported.

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Also Read: Obesity a Grave Crisis, says PM Modi in Independence Address




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