Children under continuous kidney replacement therapy have higher risk of vitamin D deficiency, finds research

A new study by Peace Dorothy Imani and team found that children who need continuous kidney replacement therapy (CKRT) are more likely to have osteopenia, fractures, and/or vitamin D deficiency. The findings of this study were published in the journal of BMC Nephrology. A typical feature of chronic kidney disease (CKD) is altered calcium and phosphate balance. The dysregulation of phosphate metabolism, parathyroid hormone (PTH), fibroblast growth factor (FGF)-23, expression of Klotho, and 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D (1, 25 di-(OH)2D) causes this. The ensuing metabolic abnormalities are linked to both mineral bone disease (MBD) and an elevated risk of cardiovascular disease, which is a primary cause of morbidity and death in people with chronic kidney disease (CKD).

In critically unwell children with acute kidney injury (AKI), continuous kidney replacement therapy is used to manage hemodynamics and gradually remove fluid while permitting nutritional assistance. Recent consensus from the Acute Disease Quality Initiative (ADQI) defines acute kidney disease (AKD) as AKI lasting more than 7 days but less than 90 days. This study was to characterize the bone and metabolic results of juvenile AKD patients who needed more than 28 days of CKRT combined with localized citrate anticoagulation.

In this prospective observational research conducted at a single site, the study included 37 patients who needed regional citrate anticoagulation and CKRT for at least 28 days. The duration of CKRT was the exposure, and the results included osteopenia and/or fractures, as well as 25-hydroxy vitamin D. Vitamin D insufficiency and deficiency were prevalent in 17.2% and 69.0% of people, respectively. The radiographic evidence of osteopenia and/or fractures were present in 29.7% of the patients. Also, age or ethnicity did not appear to have any impact on vitamin D deficit or insufficiency. Vitamin D levels were not predicted by duration on CKRT or intact PTH levels. After correcting for age and length of CKRT, children with chronic liver illness had an odds ratio higher than children with other main diagnoses for osteopenia and/or fractures.

Overall, vitamin D insufficiency and inadequacy are common in juvenile AKD patients undergoing CKRT and may deteriorate despite conventional supplementation. The patients who require extended CKRT may require higher doses of vitamin D supplementation to maintain adequate levels and avoid MBD.

Source:

Imani, P. D., Vega, M., Pekkucuksen, N. T., Srivaths, P., & Arikan, A. A. (2024). Vitamin D and metabolic bone disease in prolonged continuous kidney replacement therapy: a prospective observational study. In BMC Nephrology (Vol. 25, Issue 1). Springer Science and Business Media LLC. https://doi.org/10.1186/s12882-024-03705-9

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Maternal depression during early pregnancy associated with impaired child executive functioning at 4 to 5 years of age: AJOG

Maternal depression is a serious condition that affects up
to 1 in 7 pregnancies. Despite evidence linking maternal depression to
pregnancy complications and adverse fetal outcomes, there remain large gaps in
its identification and treatment. More work is needed to define the specific
timing and severity of depression that most urgently requires intervention,
where feasible, to protect maternal health and the developing fetus.

A study by Levitan RD et al aimed to examine whether the
timing and severity of maternal depression and/or anxiety during pregnancy
affect child executive functioning at age 4.5 years. Executive functioning in
the preschool years is a strong predictor of both school readiness and longterm
quality of life.

This longitudinal observational pregnancy cohort study
included a sample of 323 mother-child dyads taking part in the Ontario Birth
Study, an open pregnancy cohort in Toronto, Ontario, Canada. Maternal symptoms
of depression and anxiety were assessed at 12 to 16 and 28 to 32 weeks of
gestation and at the time of child testing at age 4.5 years using the 4-item
Patient Health Questionnaire. Child executive functioning was measured during a
home visit using standardized computerized administration of the Flanker test
(a measure of attention) and the Dimensional Change Card Sort (a measure of
cognitive flexibility). Posthoc general linear models were used to assess
whether maternal depression severity categories (no symptom, mild symptoms, or
probable major depressive disorder) were helpful in identifying children at
risk.

Across all children, after controlling for potential
confounds, greater maternal depressive symptoms at weeks 12 to 16 weeks of
gestation predicted worse performance on both the Flanker test (DR2 ¼0.058; P<
.001) and the Dimensional Change Card Sort (P=.018). Posthoc general linear
modeling further demonstrated that the children of mothers meeting the
screening criteria for major depression in early pregnancy scored 11.3% lower
on the Flanker test and 9.8% lower on the Dimensional Change Card Sort than the
children of mothers without maternal depressive symptoms in early pregnancy.
Mild depressive symptoms had no significant effect on executive function
scores. There was no significant effect of anxiety symptoms or maternal
antidepressant use in early pregnancy or pandemic conditions or maternal
symptoms in later pregnancy or at the time of child testing on either the
Flanker or Dimensional Change Card Sort results.

This study demonstrated that fetal exposure to maternal
major depression, but not milder forms of depression, at 12 to 16 weeks of
gestation is associated with impaired executive functioning in the preschool
years.

The current findings suggest that maternal major depression
during early pregnancy may have a particularly deleterious effect on the fetal
brain circuitry necessary for child executive functioning. This emphasizes an
urgent need to improve the recognition and treatment of major depression,
particularly in early pregnancy, to limit its negative effects on child
cognitive development. Possible treatments include both antidepressant
medications and cognitive behavior therapy, which now has proven efficacy for
antenatal depression per se.

This study demonstrated that fetal exposure to maternal
major depression, but not milder forms of depression, at 12 to 16 weeks of
gestation is associated with impaired executive functioning in the preschool
years. Child executive functioning is crucial for school readiness and predicts
long-term quality of life. This emphasizes an urgent need to improve the
recognition and treatment of maternal major depression, particularly in early
pregnancy, to limit its negative effects on the patient and on child cognitive
development.

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Study Finds No Long-Term Benefits of Lung Recruitment Before Surfactant in Extremely Preterm Neonates

Italy: In a significant advancement for neonatal care, researchers have published the results of a randomized clinical trial investigating the effects of lung recruitment maneuvers before surfactant administration in extremely preterm neonates.

The trial, published in JAMA Network Open, compared a group of neonates who underwent lung recruitment maneuvers before receiving surfactant to a control group that received standard care. There were no notable differences between the two groups regarding mortality, neurodevelopmental outcomes, growth measurements, or rates of recurrent respiratory infections at the two-year follow-up.

“These findings can assist clinicians in determining the most effective approach to surfactant administration by taking long-term outcomes into account,” the researchers wrote.

A multicenter randomized clinical trial (RCT) demonstrated that employing a lung recruitment maneuver with high-frequency oscillatory ventilation just before surfactant administration—referred to as intubate-recruit-surfactant-extubate (IN-REC-SUR-E)—enhanced treatment efficacy compared to the standard intubate-surfactant-extubate (IN-SUR-E) method, without raising the risk of negative neonatal outcomes. Francesca Gallini, Neonatology Unit, Ospedale Isola Tiberina, Gemelli Isola, Rome, Italy, and colleagues aimed to evaluate follow-up outcomes at a corrected postnatal age (cPNA) of two years for preterm infants who were previously enrolled in an RCT and received either the IN-REC-SUR-E or IN-SUR-E treatment across 35 tertiary neonatal intensive care units.

For this purpose, the researchers conducted a follow-up study on infants recruited from 2015 to 2018 at 35 tertiary neonatal intensive care units (NICUs) in Italy. The study assessed neurodevelopmental, growth, and respiratory outcomes at a corrected postnatal age (cPNA) of two years for extremely preterm neonates (24 0/7 to 27 6/7 weeks’ gestation) who met failure criteria for continuous positive airway pressure within the first 24 hours of life. Participants were randomly assigned to either the IN-REC-SUR-E or IN-SUR-E intervention.

The primary outcome measured was the incidence of death after discharge or major disability at cPNA for two years. Secondary outcomes included neurodevelopmental issues (such as major disability, cerebral palsy, cognitive impairment, and sensory deficits), anthropometric data (weight, length, and head circumference), and rates of recurrent respiratory infections and hospitalizations due to respiratory causes at two years cPNA. Data analysis occurred between April 2023 and January 2024.

Based on the study, the researchers revealed the following findings:

  • One hundred thirty-seven extremely preterm infants (median gestational age, 26.5 weeks and 54.7% female), initially enrolled in the original RCT, were followed up at cPNA two years, including 64 infants in the IN-SUR-E group and 73 infants in the IN-REC-SUR-E group.
  • There were no significant differences in death occurrence after discharge or major disability at cPNA two years (IN-SUR-E: 20.3% children versus IN-REC-SUR-E: 13.7% children).
  • There were no significant differences in the incidence of disability, cerebral palsy, or cognitive impairment in the IN-REC-SUR-E group compared with the IN-SUR-E group.
  • There were no significant differences in anthropometric measurements (weight, length, and head circumference) between groups.
  • There were no significant differences between groups in the incidence of recurrent respiratory infections or hospitalizations because of respiratory causes.

The findings indicate that the intubate-recruit-surfactant-extubate technique is a safe approach for the outcomes assessed.

However, the researchers noted that their findings cannot yet be compared with data from other cohorts. They emphasized the need for further multicenter studies to confirm their results better.

“Additionally, neurodevelopmental outcomes, including growth and respiratory health, for all patients treated with this new procedure should be evaluated prospectively to further validate the safety and efficacy of the IN-REC-SUR-E technique compared to the standard IN-SUR-E method,” they concluded.

Reference:

Gallini F, De Rose DU, Iuliano R, et al. Lung Recruitment Before Surfactant Administration in Extremely Preterm Neonates: 2-Year Follow-Up of a Randomized Clinical Trial. JAMA Netw Open. 2024;7(9):e2435347. doi:10.1001/jamanetworkopen.2024.35347

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Vision loss due to negligence in surgery: Eye Hospital, ophthalmologists slapped Rs 15 lakh Compensation

Visakhapatnam: Holding a private eye institute, its director and two ophthalmologists guilty of medical negligence, the District Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission-II, Visakhapatnam directed them to pay Rs 15 lakh to the patient who lost vision in one eye.

The history of the case goes back to February 2019 when the patient was chatting with his friend while another friend was playing with an air rifle. One of the pellets from the air rifle touched the complainant’s left eye and due to this, he sustained bleeding injury. 

Although he was shifted to Visakha Eye Hospital, Visakhapatnam at first, the doctors expressed their inability to treat the patient and advised him to shift to the treating hospital i.e. L.V. Prasad Eye Institute.

Accordingly, the patient was admitted to the treating hospital, where Dr. Ballala, the on-duty ophthalmologist, checked the patient and instructed the optometrist to check the injury. Later, after observation, the complainant was sent to Dr Annapoorna, who diagnosed that the complainant’s left eye was having ‘Open Globe Injury-Zone 1’. Therefore, Slit Lamp Photography was conducted for the injury and it was found that the complainant had defective vision following the injury with a gun pellet (Aluminimum Pellet) and found subconjunctival hemorrhage + full thickness corneal tear from 12 o’clock limbus towards inferiority in Y shape- indo dialysis and iris prolapse through the wound – vitreous prolapsed along with lens prolapsed noted through the wound-vitreous hemorrhage. 

Following this, the doctor shielded the complainant’s eye and medicines were also prescribed. The complainant was advised of surgery- primary globe integrity and was explained the risk of Endophthalmitis, Sympathetic Ophthalmitis and Retinal detachment. After explaining his condition, the doctor advised for a management operation for a corneal tear.

Accordingly, the surgery was conducted on 20.02.2019. It was alleged that the B Scan was conducted only on the next day of operation and was not conducted before the operation or on the date of operation. However, there was no improvement in the injured eye and thereafter the complainant visited Aravind Eye Hospital in Coimbatore. A CT scan was conducted and it revealed that the pellet was still there in the left eye.

Consequently, the complainant moved to several eye hospitals and underwent another surgery for removal of the remaining pellet part and the patient also underwent Oculoplasty but his vision was not restored. 

Thereafter, the complainant filed a consumer complaint before the District Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission, Visakhapatnam and asked the eye hospital, its director and two doctors to pay compensation for their medical negligence leading to the loss of the complainant’s vision.

On the other hand, the hospital and its doctors denied any medical negligence on their part and submitted that the surgery was performed as per internationally accepted practice with due care and concern and the bleeding from the complainant’s eye was successfully stopped on the day of surgery.

They further submitted that the treatment post-procedure was duly prescribed and explained to the complainant. According to the hospital and its doctors, the complainant did not follow up as advised and therefore the complainant having not followed the advice cannot now attribute negligence on the part of the hospital and its doctors.

While considering the matter, the District Consumer Court noted,

“Irrespective of the recovery of vision, the Exhibits placed on the file of this Commission and the treatment report filed by the opposite parties prima facie speak that the present case is `res ipsa loquitur.’ The first instance of decision making to proceed for the surgery without proper investigations and tests proves negligence on part of the opposite parties-1 to 4 which falls within the guidelines of the above quoted precedents, rather the opposite parties-1 to 4 failed to abide by their duties as per the guidelines set by the Honourable Supreme Court. Therefore the opposite parties-1 to 4 (the hospital’s directors and doctors) are at liability for medical negligence, thereby deficiency of service and the complainant is entitled for compensation for mental agony, and sufferance.”

“…such a part of the body/ an eye should be attended with utmost care. The Complainant had to roam around pillar to post searching for a specialist/expert who was not referred by the Opposite Parties-1 to 4 which was their duty to do so and spend a lot of money with a hope of recovery of vision and ultimately had to go for oculoplasty and incur lots of financial loss and sufferance which could have been avoided if the treatment at 2nd opposite party hospital was done in an right manner at the right time,” observed the Commission.

Therefore, holding the hospital and its doctors guilty of medical negligence, the Commission directed them to pay Rs 15 lakh compensation. “The opposite parties-1 to 4 are jointly and severally directed to pay an amount of Rs.15,00,000/- (Rupees fifteen lakhs only) towards compensation for medical negligence which includes compensation for pain and sufferance,” ordered the Commission. The hospital and its doctors have also been directed to pay rs 10,000 as legal cost.

To view the order, click on the link below:

https://medicaldialogues.in/pdf_upload/visakhapatnam-dcdrc-254067.pdf

Also Read: Doctors Need to be Protected from Frivolous Prosecution for Unjust Compensation: Bombay HC

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Eris Lifscience Gets CDSCO Panel Nod To Manufacture, Market Antidiabetic FDC

New Delhi: Reviewing the bioequivalence (BE) study report of the fixed-dose combination (FDC) antidiabetic drug Dapagliflozin Propanediol Monohydrate plus Gliclazide plus Metformin Hydrochloride film-coated bilayer tablet, the Subject Expert Committee (SEC) functional under the Central Drug Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) has granted approval to Eris Lifesciences to manufacture and market the proposed antidiabetic drug.

However, this approval is subject to the condition of conducting the Phase IV clinical trial of the proposed FDC.

This nod came after the firm presented a BE study report of Dapagliflozin Propanediol Monohydrate eq. to Dapagliflozin 10mg/10mg + Gliclazide IP (SR) 30mg/60mg + Metformin Hydrochloride IP (SR) 500mg/500mg film-coated bilayered tablet before the committee.

Dapagliflozin is a sodium-glucose cotransporter 2 inhibitor used in the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus. Dapagliflozin is indicated as an adjunct treatment, alongside diet and exercise, to improve glycemic control in patients ≥10 years of age with type 2 diabetes mellitus.

For patients with chronic kidney disease at risk of progression, dapagliflozin is used to reduce the risk of sustained eGFR decline, end-stage kidney disease, cardiovascular death, and hospitalization for heart failure.

Dapagliflozin is also indicated to either reduce the risk of cardiovascular death, hospitalization for heart failure, and urgent heart failure visit in adults with heart failure or reduce the risk of hospitalization for heart failure in adults with type 2 diabetes mellitus and either established cardiovascular disease or multiple cardiovascular risk factors. Combination products with dapagliflozin also exist, either as a dapagliflozin-saxagliptin or dapagliflozin-metformin hydrochloride formulation.

Gliclazide is a sulfonylurea used to treat hyperglycemia in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Gliclazide is an oral antihyperglycemic agent used for the treatment of non-insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (NIDDM).

Gliclazide binds to the β cell sulfonylurea receptor (SUR1). This binding subsequently blocks the ATP-sensitive potassium channels. The binding results in the closure of the channels and leads to a decrease in potassium efflux, which leads to depolarization of the β cells.

Metformin is in a class of drugs called biguanides. Metformin helps to control the amount of glucose (sugar) in your blood. It decreases the amount of glucose you absorb from your food and the amount of glucose made by the liver.

Metformin’s mechanism of action is the alteration of the energy metabolism of the cell. Metformin exerts its prevailing, glucose-lowering effect by inhibiting hepatic gluconeogenesis and opposing the action of glucagon.

At the recent SEC meeting for Endocrinology and Metabolism held on September 19, 2024, the expert panel reviewed the BE study of the FDC antidiabetic drug Dapagliflozin Propanediol Monohydrate plus Gliclazide plus Metformin Hydrochloride film-coated bilayered tablet

After detailed deliberation, the committee considered the BE study report and recommended the grant of permission to manufacture and market the FDC with the condition of conducting the Phase IV clinical trial.

Accordingly, the expert panel suggested that the firm should submit the Phase IV clinical trial protocol to CDSCO within 3 months from approval of the FDC, for further review by the SEC.

Also Read: Conduct Active Surveillance Study: CDSCO Panel Tells Pfizer on Abrocitinib tablets

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NBE notifies on Completion of Joining formalities, Self-Appraisal for Registration by trainees, details

New Delhi: Through a recent notice, NBE (National Board of Examination) has informed FNB trainees for the 2023 Admission Session and concerned training institutions regarding the Completion of Joining formalities and Self-Appraisal for Registration with NBEMS at the Online Portal for Joining & Registration (OPJR).

NBEMS introduced a Self-Appraisal by candidates for seeking registration with NBEMS as NBEMS trainees to pursue NBEMS courses, the 2023 admission session onwards.

This self-appraisal is meant to determine the eligibility of candidates for registration with NBEMS as trainees subsequent to their joining at the NBEMS-accredited institutions allotted through centralized merit-based counseling.

The eligibility of candidates for said NBEMS programme is determined on the basis of prescribed criteria in the information bulletin for respective entrance examinations. On successfully meeting the criteria and submission of self-appraisal with prescribed documents to NBEMS through the training institutions, candidates get registered with NBEMS as trainees. A letter to this effect in form of a “Letter of Provisional Registration” shall be available for download on a real time basis on successful completion of self-appraisal by the trainee & respective training institution.

Following 4 steps shall be required to be completed by FNB trainees of 2023 admission session for getting registration with NBEMS, in sequence as mentioned below:

a. Submission of Joining formalities at OPJR by candidate

b. Verification of Joining status at OPJR by training institution

c. Submission of Self-Appraisal at OPJR by candidate

d. Verification of Self-Appraisal at OPJR by training institution

Timelines for opening of Self-appraisal window for FNB courses of 2023 admission session:

Process 

Timelines of online window 

Submission of joining status and self-appraisal

forms by candidates to their training institutions

26th September 2024 to

22nd October 2024 (till 11:55PM)

Confirmation of joining status and Verification

of the self-appraisal forms & documents of the

candidates by NBEMS Accredited institutes

26th September 2024 to

31st October 2024

No extension of the online window shall be admissible. Candidates who would fail to complete their self-appraisal during the prescribed window shall NOT be registered as NBEMS trainees.

Candidates shall be required to go through the information bulletin for FET 2023 before they proceed to complete the joining formalities and the self-appraisal. They shall be further required to go through the detailed guidelines available at Online Portal for Joining & Registration (OPJR) before they proceed with the Joining and Self-appraisal at OPJR. It is strongly advised to carefully go through the declaration which they shall be agreeing to after completing the joining & self-appraisal proforma.

It shall be the complete responsibility of the candidate for the accuracy and authenticity of the information provided at OPJR and the documents submitted. Any discrepancies or misrepresentations found in the information provided shall lead to the termination of the candidature to pursue the course without any prior notice or an opportunity being given by NBEMS.

The training institutions shall verify the joining details and self-appraisal submitted by the candidate before approving the same. The training institutions approving/ forwarding any false or fabricated records/information/documents for the purpose of seeking registration of the candidate as a trainee shall be liable for action as may be appropriate in terms and conditions of the accreditation agreement.

The joining of FNB trainees is subject to successful completion of joining formalities & self-appraisal within prescribed timelines and its subsequent verification by the training institutions

The registration so granted on submission of self-appraisal form and its subsequent verification by the training institution shall be purely provisional and has been granted only for the specific purpose of undertaking the FNB course. The provisional registration shall be subject to verification of the information and documents furnished by the trainee at OPJR and mere grant of this registration will not create any rights/equity in favour of the trainee, whatsoever, to undertake the FNB course or appear in FNB Exit Examination or award of FNB Qualification.

To view the official Notice, Click here : https://medicaldialogues.in/pdf_upload/nbems20241723844169jpg-254380.pdf

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Dr NTRUHS begins registrations for NEET PG Counselling Under Management Quota 2024, Know admission details here

Andhra Pradesh- Dr NTR University of Health Sciences (DR NTRUHS) is inviting online applications for admission into the Post Graduate Medical Degree and Diploma Courses in private un-aided non-minority and minority medical colleges under management quota in the state of Andhra Pradesh for the academic year 2024-25. On this, NTRUHS has released a prospectus detailing the eligibility, fee structure, registration and processing fee, procedure to fill out applications online, documents, and other details.

The online application form for determining Merit Positions in respective categories – Category – B (S1) & Category-C- NRI (S2)/ Institutional Quota(S3) is already been made live on the official website of NTRUHS which will be active till 09.00 PM on 04 October 2024 without the late fee candidates. For candidates with late fees, the application will be available from 09.00 AM on 05 October 2024 to 09.00 PM on 07 October 2024.

Also Read: Dr NTRUHS Invites Applications for NEET PG Counselling 2024, Know Eligibility, Fee, Application Process, all details here

CERTIFICATES REQUIRED BEFORE FILLING THE APPLICATION FORM ONLINE

The following Certificates are required at the time of Online Registration-

1 NEET-2024 – SCORE CARD.

2 Copy of Original Degree/Provisional certificate of MBBS.

3 Copy of MBBS study certificate.

4 Copy of the Compulsory Rotatory Internship certificate.

5 6th to Inter/10+2 study certificates for the candidates who have completed MBBS from Govt. Siddhartha Medical College, Vijayawada.

6 Copies of Temporary/Permanent Medical Registration from the respective State Medical Council.

7 Sponsorship Letter from Institute/College for claiming Institutional Quota-S3.

8 Caste Category Certificate.

9 Minority Certificate.

10 Aadhar Card, PAN Card etc.

11 Candidate’s latest passport-size Photo.

12 Specimen Signature of the Candidate.

13 Candidates claiming NRI Quota Should submit the following documents-

i Green Card (OR) Citizenship Card (OR) Pass-port issued by the respective Country and,

ii Copy of NRI’s Bank Statement for the last 6 months (OR) Latest Electricity Bill (OR) Gas Bill (OR) Water Bill in the name of NRI.

iii Visa / Driving license will NOT be accepted.

THE REGISTRATION & PROCESSING FEE (WITHOUT LATE FEE)

S.NO

CATEGORY

REGISTRATION & PROCESSING FEE INCLUDING 18% GST

IN ADDITION TO REGISTRATION & PROCESSING FEE, VERIFICATION FEE INCLUDING 18% GST

TOTAL AMOUNT

MBBS COMPETED WITHIN AP

1

OC/BC

₹.7080/- (6,000/- + 1,080/- GST 18%)

—

₹.7,080/-

MBBS COMPETED OUTSIDE AP

2

OC/BC

₹.7080/- (6,000/- + 1,080/- GST 18%)

₹.3,540/- (3,000/-+540/- (GST 18%)

₹.10,620/-

MBBS COMPETED OUTSIDE COUNTRY

3

OC/BC

₹.7080/- (6,000/- + 1,080/- GST 18%)

8,260/- (7,000/-+1,260/- (GST 18%)

₹.15,340/-

THE REGISTRATION & PROCESSING FEE (WITHOUT LATE FEE)

S.NO

CATEGORY

FEE IN RS

LATE FEE RS

TOTAL AMOUNT

1

OC/BC

₹.7080/- (6,000/- + 1,080/- GST 18%)

₹.20,000/- (FEE RS.16,950 + GST @ 18% = 3,050/-)

₹.27,080/-

MBBS COMPETED OUTSIDE AP

2

OC/BC

₹.7080/-+3540/-=10,620/-

₹.20,000/- (FEE RS.16,950 + GST @ 18% = 3,050/-)

₹.30,620/-

MBBS COMPETED OUTSIDE COUNTRY

3

OC/BC

₹.7080/-+8260/- =15,340/-

₹.20,000/- (FEE RS.16,950 + GST @ 18% = 3,050/-)

₹.35,340/-

It is to be noted that the application Meanwhile, the application and processing fees including the late fee once paid will not be refunded or adjusted to a future date under any circumstances. The fee can be paid through a Debit card, Credit card or Net Banking.

ELIGIBILITY

1 The candidates who fulfil the following criteria are eligible for admission into Post Graduate Medical Degree/Diploma courses.

2 Candidates should have completed the internship latest by 15-08-2024.

3 The candidates should secure the following cut-off scores in NEET PG-2024 conducted by the National Board of Examinations.

S.NO

CATEGORY

MINIMUM QUALIFYING/ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA

1

General/EWS.

50th percentile

2

General-PwBD.

45th percentile

3

SC/ST/OBC (Including PwBD of SC/ST/OBC)

40th percentile

ADMISSION RULES

1 The last date for reporting by the selected candidates at the allotted college will be communicated in the allotment order.

2 All the candidates including In-service candidates joining the Post Graduate Degree, and Diploma courses should execute a bond on a stamped paper of ₹. 100/- value to the effect that he/she will complete the prescribed period of training or in default to pay ₹.3,00,000/- + 18% GST to the University and should refund the amount received as stipend up to that date to the Government as notified by the University from time to time.

3 Candidates have to pay the discontinuation penalty of ₹ 3,00,000/- + 18% GST and they will be debarred for three years for admission into Post Graduate Medical Degree/Diploma courses at the colleges in the State of Andhra Pradesh.

BREAK OF STUDY AND RE-ADMISSION

If a student is absent continuously for 91 days or more and seeks permission to attend the course, his / her application by paying the requisite fee in favour of the Registrar, Dr NTR University of Health Sciences payable at Vijayawada will be forwarded to the Registrar, Dr NTR University of Health Sciences with the recommendation of the Dean/Principal. The candidates are advised to refer to the regulations before submitting the application and paying the fee. If they fulfil the conditions, they may submit applications through the Dean/Principal of the College by paying the fee. A maximum of two spells of break of study is allowed during the entire period of the course. A candidate has to complete the course including passing the final University examination within twice the duration of the course i.e., 6 years from the date of admission to the course. Re-admission is not permitted if the candidate cannot complete the course within twice the duration of the course.

MERIT LISTS

1 The Merit Position of the candidates who have applied online in response to the notification issued by Dr NTR University of Health Sciences for Management Quota Seats should be determined by NEET PG–2024 Rank and as per their eligibility criteria, applicable regulations, and guidelines.

2 The University will release the final merit position of eligible candidates for exercising web options after verification of uploaded scanned certificates by Dr.NTR UHS, Vijayawada.

To view the prospectus, click the link below

https://medicaldialogues.in/pdf_upload/pg-medical-mq-prospectus-2024-25-ntr-254641.pdf


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Homoeopathic doctor, 5 others arrested for running psychotropic drug manufacturing racket, 4.2 crore drug seized

New Delhi: Busting an illegal supply of drugs racket in the capital, the Delhi police recently arrested a homoeopathic doctor previously honoured with the prestigious Indian Achiever’s Award along with five others for illegally manufacturing Alprazolam, a psychotropic drug used to treat anxiety disorders.  

According to the police, around 18 kg of Alprazolam powder was recovered in the possession of one of the accused Rajender Prasad Mishra who worked as a carrier in a drug cartel involved in the racket. Additionally, the police recovered the drugs worth Rs 4.20 crore from the accused. 

The operation was running from a factory in Hisar, Haryana. From there, the accused supplied large quantities of the drug to the national capital, Delhi. Dr ***, who serves as the CEO of Biocase Foods & Extracts Pvt Ltd, a herbal healthcare company is suspected to be the head of the operation.   

Also read- PG Medico Doctor Death Case: CBI uncovers massive bribery, illegal medicine racket at RG Kar Medical College

The six accused have been identified as DR ****, Rajender Kumar Mishra alias RP, Ram Ashish Maurya alias Pappu, Anand Kumar alias Sonu (owner of a pharmaceutical company called Sakshi Enterprises Ltd), Deepak Kumar, and Mukesh Kumar.

According to Deputy Commissioner of Police (Crime) Amit Goel, the racket was busted when authorities received a tip-off that one of the suspects, Rajender Prasad Mishra, was set to receive a consignment of Alprazolam from one of his aids near Aggarwal Sweets on Main Wazirabad Road in Delhi. 

Following this, the police team laid a trap and arrested Mishra, recovering 18 kg of Alprazolam from his possession. Upon interrogation, Mishra revealed that he procured the Alprazolam powder from Ram Ashish Maurya to deliver it to Anand Kumar in Karawal Nagar, Delhi. Following Mishra’s confession, police raided the homes of Maurya and Kumar, recovering Rs 1.17 crore in cash. 

Speaking to TNIE, DCP said, “Raids were conducted to nab Ram Ashish Maurya and Anand Kumar, but both were absconding. However, Rs 1.17 crore was recovered from their houses. Later, accused Ram Ashish Maurya, Anand Kumar and Deepak Kumar were arrested.”

Deepak’s interrogation led to the key revelation that the Alprazolam was being illegally manufactured in Dr ***’s Hisar-based company, Biocase Foods & Extracts Pvt Ltd. The doctor was then arrested based on the evidence that traces of Alprazolam powder were found in his factory.

“Traces of Alprazolam powder were found and lifted from the factory by an FSL team. It was found that the accused Deepak took shelter at the house of Mukesh Kumar, who was held. Action under financial investigation was also taken against them. Action for freezing the factory in Hisar and two built-up properties and a car of accused Anand Kumar is under process,” DCP added.

Also read- Faridabad Homeopathic doctor arrested for practicing allopathy medicine for 35 years

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State quota PG Medical Admissions 2024 In Andhra: Know The Complete Fee Structure Here

Andhra Pradesh- Dr NTR University of Health Sciences (DR NTRUHS) is inviting online applications for admission into the Post Graduate Medical Degree and Diploma Courses under Competent Authority Quota/State Quota seats for the academic year 2024-25. On this, NTRUHS has released a prospectus detailing the complete fee structure and registration processing fee regarding the course.

As per the prospectus, at the time of reporting for admission, the candidate has to pay a total of Rs. 23,600/- towards the University fee by All India Quota candidates by way of DD. Of these, Rs.18,800/-(10% of tuition fee & other fees) which is non-refundable by way of DD and balance fees of Rs.1,69,200/- by way of another DD.

It is to be noted that the demand draft (DD) should be drawn in favour of, “The Director, SVIMS, Tirupati”, payable at Tirupati. The DDs should be drawn on or after the commencement of the admission schedule. In case, the candidate wants to slide to other colleges, the amount paid under will not be refunded, the rest of the fees will be returned. In addition, the 2nd & 3rd year fees of Rs. 1,86,000/- each should be paid/deducted from the stipend.

Meanwhile, the application and processing fees including the late fee once paid will not be refunded or adjusted to a future date under any circumstances. The fee can be paid through a Debit card, Credit card or Net Banking The candidates are advised to submit a printout of the filled-in online application form duly signed at the declaration area at the reporting college.

Also Read: Dr NTRUHS Invites Applications for NEET PG Counselling 2024, Know Eligibility, Fee, Application Process, all details here

Below are the complete fee structure details-

THE REGISTRATION & PROCESSING FEE (WITHOUT LATE FEE)

S.NO

CATEGORY

REGISTRATION & PROCESSING FEE INCLUDING 18% GST

IN ADDITION TO REGISTRATION & PROCESSING FEE, VERIFICATION FEE INCLUDING 18% GST

TOTAL AMOUNT

MBBS COMPETED WITHIN AP

1

OC/BC

₹.7080/- (6,000/- + 1,080/- GST 18%)

—

₹.7,080/-

2

SC/ST

₹.5,900/- (5,000/-+900/-GST 18%)

—

₹.5,900/-

MBBS COMPETED OUTSIDE AP

3

OC/BC

₹.7080/- (6,000/- + 1,080/- GST 18%)

₹.3,540/- (3,000/-+540/- (GST 18%)

₹.10,620/-

4

SC/ST

₹.5900/- (5,000/-+900/-GST 18%)

₹.3,540/- (3,000/-+540/- (GST 18%)

₹.9,440/

MBBS COMPETED OUTSIDE COUNTRY

5

OC/BC

₹.7080/- (6,000/- + 1,080/- GST 18%)

8,260/- (7,000/-+1,260/- (GST 18%)

₹.15,340/-

6

SC/ST

₹.5900/- (5,000/-+900/-GST 18%)

8,260/- (7,000/-+1,260/-(GST 18%)

₹.14,160/-

THE REGISTRATION & PROCESSING FEE (WITHOUT LATE FEE)

S.NO

CATEGORY

FEE IN RS

LATE FEE RS

TOTAL AMOUNT

1

OC/BC

₹.7080/- (6,000/- + 1,080/- GST 18%)

₹.20,000/- (FEE RS.16,950 + GST @ 18% = 3,050/-)

₹.27,080/-

2

SC/ST

₹.5,900/- (5,000/-+900/-GST 18%)

₹.20,000/- (FEE RS.16,950 + GST @ 18% = 3,050/-)

₹.25,900/-

MBBS COMPETED OUTSIDE AP

3

OC/BC

₹.7080/-+3540/-=10,620/-

₹.20,000/- (FEE RS.16,950 + GST @ 18% = 3,050/-)

₹.30,620/-

4

SC/ST

₹.5900/-+3540/-=9,440/-

₹.20,000/- (FEE RS.16,950 + GST @ 18% = 3,050/-)

₹.29,440/-

MBBS COMPETED OUTSIDE COUNTRY

5

OC/BC

₹.7080/-+8260/- =15,340/-

₹.20,000/- (FEE RS.16,950 + GST @ 18% = 3,050/-)

₹.35,340/-

6

SC/ST

₹.5900/-+8260/- =14,160/-

₹.20,000/- (FEE RS.16,950 + GST @ 18% = 3,050/-)

₹.34,160/-

FEE STRUCTURE

UNIVERSITY FEES

All the selected candidates should pay the Non – non-refundable university Fee of ₹.23,600/-.The following is the Tuition fee structure for the academic year 2024-25 to be payable for the Competent Authority Quota seats in Private Un-aided Medical Colleges.

S.NO

NAME OF THE COURSE

FEE FOR CATEGORY A (CQ) SEATS

1

Clinical Degree/Diploma.

₹. 4,96,800/-

2

Para Clinical Degree/Diploma.

₹.1,55,250/-

3

Pre-Clinical Degree/Diploma.

₹.70,380/-

TUITION FEES & OTHER FEES

S.NO

PARTICULARS

AMOUNT IN RS.

1

Tuition fee per annum.

1,75,000 /-

2

Library fee per annum.

5,000/-

3

Registration fee.

2,000/-

4

Sports & Cultural Activities fee per annum.

1,000/-

5

Caution Deposit (Refundable)*.

10,000/-

6

Hostel Deposit (Refundable)*.

5,000/-

7

Hostel Corpus fund (Non-refundable).

5,000/-

However, it is to be noted that the caution deposit is to be paid at the time of joining and hostel deposit and corpus funds are to be paid to Hostel authorities.

To view the prospectus, click the link below

https://medicaldialogues.in/pdf_upload/dr-ntruhs-invites-applications-for-pg-medical-courses-2024-25-heres-all-the-details-on-eligibility-fee-structure-application-process-254581.pdf

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Delhi AIIMS set to be biggest robotic surgery skill training centre: MoS Jadhav

Delhi: The All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) Delhi has announced an ambitious plan to set up the largest Research and Skill Development Training Center (RSSTC) in the country, with an estimated investment of ₹900 crores. This initiative aims to enhance medical education, research capabilities, and the overall infrastructure of the prestigious institution. 

During the 69th ceremony of AIIMS Delhi, the Union Minister of State for Health and Family Welfare expressed the institution’s pivotal role in shaping the future of healthcare in India. He noted that AIIMS Delhi is a pioneer in medical education and research, underscoring its legacy of excellence that inspires medical institutes globally.

“AIIMS Delhi has achieved remarkable milestones and is determined to achieve its goal of being one of the top-ranked medical institutions in the world,” Jadhav said while speaking on the occasion, news agency PTI reported.

Highlighting that for the seventh consecutive year since the National Institute Ranking Framework (NIRF), AIIMS Delhi has been ranked number one among medical institutions of India, the Union minister said, “This institute’s continuous unchallenged status is a remarkable achievement.” He informed that AIIMS Delhi now serves as the National Resource Centre of the National Medical College Network (NMCN) of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. This has enabled linkages with more than 100 medical colleges for enhancing undergraduate, postgraduate and continuing medical education, he said.

He noted that AIIMS Delhi has officially been recognized as the National Resource Centre for the National Medical College network under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. This important designation has established linkages with over 100 medical colleges across the country, aiming to enhance undergraduate, postgraduate, and continuing medical education. The initiative seeks to strengthen the educational framework within the healthcare sector, ensuring that medical professionals are equipped with the latest knowledge and skills.

“AIIMS is set to be the biggest robotic surgery skill training centre with two state-of-the-art robotic surgery equipment dedicated for training of surgeons,” Jadhav stated.

A key component of this effort is the creation of the national learning management and information system, SAKSHYAM, which was launched last year. This platform is designed to streamline educational resources and provide comprehensive training support for medical students and practitioners.

AIIMS Delhi has established a Centre of Excellence for the Development of Artificial Intelligence (AI) in Healthcare, created by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. This center focuses on AI-based solutions for early detection of diabetic retinopathy and identification of skin lesions, aiming to enhance national health programs and improve patient outcomes.

Jadhav also highlighted that the government plans to allocate ₹900 crore to AIIMS Delhi for a new hostel complex featuring 2,200 rooms. This new facility aims to accommodate the growing number of students and researchers at the institute. Recent additions to the campus include a mother and child block, a surgery block, and a national center for aging, all of which are now fully operational. Over the past two years, the number of inpatient beds has increased by more than 30%, with intensive care and operation theatre services expanding by nearly 40%.

Also Read: AIIMS Darbhanga to be built by NBCC arm, secures Rs 1261 crore contract

The introduction of new facilities at AIIMS Delhi is set to significantly bolster the institution’s ability to meet the increasing demands for medical education and research. AIIMS has been entrusted with the responsibility of operationalizing the Central Armed Police Forces Institute of Medical Sciences at Maidangarhi, further expanding its role in the healthcare sector.

During a recent functional day celebration, the Union Health Minister officially inaugurated an exhibition showcasing innovative research and projects undertaken by various departments at AIIMS. The exhibition highlighted the cutting-edge work being done across the institution, reflecting its commitment to excellence in medical education and patient care.

The Union Health Minister also inaugurated an exhibition showcasing innovative research and projects from various departments at AIIMS, celebrating the achievements of students and staff with awards and recognition for outstanding contributions to the institute.

AIIMS Delhi has introduced several IT initiatives, including the SANTUSHT portal for online grievance registration and feedback, enhancing transparency. Real-time dashboards provide public access to operational metrics, ensuring accountability. The management of IT infrastructure has been digitized for prompt issue resolution, maintaining uninterrupted services. Additionally, a new registration application for the emergency department records patient conditions and streamlines consultations. The Union Health Minister officially launched these initiatives, highlighting AIIMS Delhi’s commitment to improving patient care through technology.

The Union Minister also launched a fire station at AIIMS, staffed with six personnel, marking the first station dedicated exclusively to a medical institute.

According to the Medical Buyer report, Professor M. Srinivas, Director of AIIMS New Delhi, stated that AIIMS has already received NABH certification for some of its blocks and centers, and the process of NABH certification for all centers, including the main hospital, is underway. He highlighted that accreditation for all laboratories is also in progress. Additionally, he noted that AIIMS has been a forerunner in implementing the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, overcoming various challenges and serving as a role model for the country by creating more than 7 lakh ABDHA IDs and over 20 lakh can-share tokens.

Also Read: Delhi AIIMS, Intuitive sign MoU to set up Robotic-Assisted Surgery Training Centre

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