Standing desks are bad for your health, according to a new study
Powered by WPeMatico
Powered by WPeMatico
Bhubaneswar: In a significant development, the Directorate of Medical Education and Training (DMET) has signed an MoU with Chennai-based MGM Healthcare for a heart transplantation facility at the state-run SCB Medical College and Hospital in Cuttack.
Heart transplantation facility will soon be available at the state-run SCB Medical College and Hospital in Cuttack, Health Minister Mukesh Mahaling said on Wednesday.
The state government is committed to providing the best healthcare services to the people of Odisha, Mahaling said.
Powered by WPeMatico
Madurai: The Madras High Court recently granted relief to a student, who mistakenly chose the BDS course despite being allotted the MBBS course in the first round of counselling.
Disagreeing with the State’s highly technical contention to give capital punishment to the student for a genuine mistake, the HC Division Bench of Justice R Subramaniam and Justice Sunder Mohan upheld the Single-bench order granting relief to the concerned student.
“We do not think we can interfere with the order of the learned Single Judge. All that has been done is to condone the mistake committed by a very bright student, who has obtained State first in ICSE Board of Studies in 12th Standard. The student conceded that he had committed a mistake in choosing BDS course despite having allotted a MBBS seat in the first round of counselling. This mistake has been condoned by the learned Single Judge and a direction has been issued to offer the seat that was allotted to the student in the first round,” observed the Division Bench.
The Division bench of the High Court was hearing a plea filed by the Directorate of Medical Education challenging the single-judge order. It was contended by the Directorate that once the candidate opted for the BDS seat, he had to relinquish the MBBS seat, granted to him in the first and second round of counselling.
On the other hand, the student submitted that he had made a genuine and inadvertent mistake while selecting the colleges in the third round of counselling. As per the latest media report by Live Law, the petitioner student submitted that while he had correctly opted for the Government Medical College in the first two rounds of allotment, he erroneously chose the Government Dental College in the third round.
He also submitted that after realizing his mistake, he immediately emailed the Selection Committee and the Directorate of Medical Education, informed them about it, and requested them to re-fix his allotment based on the correct choices.
The petitioner, who is a very bright student and obtained State first in ICSE Board of Studies in 12th Standard, further submitted before the HC bench that he had requested the authorities to at least allow him retain the already allotted MBBS seats. However, the authorities rejected his grievance. Arguing such action on the part of the authorities to be arbitrary, unreasonable, unjust, and illegal, the petitioner approached the Single Judge bench, which granted him relief.
When the authorities challenged the order before the Division Bench, the High Court noted,
“The arguments of the learned Additional Advocate General appearing for the appellants is to the effect that the student should be imposed capital punishment for the mistake. We are unable to agree with the highly technical contention of the learned Additional Advocate General.”
The Court also referred to the Rule stating “If opted for and upgraded in Rule 3, the candidate has to relinquish the seat from Round 1 or Round 2 and join the Round 3 allotted seat. He / She will not have any rights over the Round – 1 or Round – 2 seats.”
Referring to the Rule, the HC bench observed,
“The language used is very clear and it applies only to upgradation and not to degradation. What has happened to this unfortunate candidate is, having been allotted a MBBS seat in the first round, he has been pushed to BDS, which is undoubtedly a degradation. Hence, we do not think this Rule can be invoked by the authorities to deny a seat to the said student.”
The Division Bench further noted that the Single Judge had referred to a Division Bench order of the Karnataka High Court in the case of Lakshmi P.Gowda Vs. Nation National Board of Examinations in Medical Sciences, where the Court held that “the claim that re-allotment would open flood gates cannot be a defence to deny a meritorious candidate of a seat. In fact, the appointments to the posts of Civil Judges, Junior Division was forced to be reopened twice because of the bungling done by the TNPSC and we are not new to re-opening and re-allotment.”
Accordingly, the Division Bench upheld the Single Judge’s order and dismissed the appeal filed by the Directorate of Medical Education and Research.
To view the order, click on the link below:
Powered by WPeMatico
Basel: This month, the NCCN Clinical Practice Guidelines in Oncology (NCCN Guidelines) for breast cancer were updated to recommend ribociclib (Kisqali) as a Category 1 preferred CDK4/6 inhibitor (CDK4/6i) adjuvant therapy for patients with hormone receptor-positive/human epidermal growth factor receptor 2-negative (HR+/HER2-) early breast cancer (EBC) in combination with an aromatase inhibitor (AI).
Ribociclib (Kisqali) is the only CDK4/6i recommended for both all node-positive disease as well as for patients with no nodal involvement with high-risk disease characteristics, such as tumor size >5 cm, or for tumors sized 2-5 cm, either Grade 2 with high genomic risk/Ki-67 ≥20% or Grade 31.
“These evidence-based guidelines are helpful to clinicians when determining optimal treatment options for patients,” said Shreeram Aradhye, M.D., President, Development and Chief Medical Officer, Novartis. “Importantly, the NCCN Guideline recommendation of ribociclib in this broad population reaffirms the importance of offering eligible patients with early breast cancer, including those with limited nodal involvement and high-risk N0 disease, a CDK4/6i treatment like ribociclib in addition to endocrine therapy to reduce their risk of recurrence.”
A Category 1 recommendation by the NCCN Guidelines indicates high levels of clinical evidence and uniform consensus among NCCN on ribociclib (Kisqali) as an appropriate treatment for these patients. This recommendation comes after the presentation of longer-term results from the Phase III NATALEE trial at the European Society for Medical Oncology (ESMO) Congress 2024, which showed a deepening efficacy benefit beyond the Kisqali treatment duration in a broad population of patients, including those with node-negative disease; as well as the recent FDA approval and CHMP positive opinion for Kisqali in the EBC indication.
The updated guidelines, consistent with the FDA indication per the NATALEE trial, approximately double the number of patients that could benefit from treatment with a CDK4/6i in the adjuvant setting.
Also Read: Switzerland COMCO competition commission terminates Novartis probe without consequences
NCCN Guidelines also continue to recommend ribociclib (Kisqali) as the only Category 1 preferred CDK4/6i for first-line treatment of patients with HR+/HER2- metastatic breast cancer in combination with an AI; ribociclib (Kisqali) is also recommended as a Category 1 preferred regimen for first- and subsequent-line therapies** in HR+/HER2- MBC in combination with fulvestrant1.
Kisqali (ribociclib) is a selective cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitor, a class of drugs that help slow the progression of cancer by inhibiting two proteins called cyclin-dependent kinase 4 and 6 (CDK4/6). These proteins, when over-activated, can enable cancer cells to grow and divide too quickly. Targeting CDK4/6 with enhanced precision may play a role in ensuring that cancer cells do not continue to replicate uncontrollably.
In addition to the recent FDA approval of Kisqali for EBC patients in the US and CHMP positive opinion in Europe, regulatory reviews for Kisqali as an EBC treatment are ongoing worldwide.
Kisqali has been approved as a treatment for metastatic breast cancer (MBC) patients in 99 countries worldwide, including by the US FDA and the European Commission. In the US, Kisqali is indicated for the treatment of adults with HR+/HER2- advanced or MBC in combination with an AI as initial ET or fulvestrant as initial ET or following disease progression on ET in post-menopausal women or in men. In the EU, Kisqali is approved for the treatment of women with HR+/HER2- advanced or MBC in combination with either an AI or fulvestrant as initial ET or following disease progression. In pre- or peri-menopausal women, the ET should be combined with a luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone agonist.
In MBC, Kisqali has consistently demonstrated statistically significant overall survival benefit across three Phase III trials6-16. In addition to being included in the NCCN Guidelines for breast cancer1, Kisqali has the highest rating of any CDK4/6 inhibitor on the ESMO Magnitude of Clinical Benefit Scale, achieving a score of five out of five for first-line pre-menopausal patients with HR+/HER2- advanced breast cancer. Further, Kisqali in combination with either letrozole or fulvestrant has uniquely, among other CDK4/6 inhibitors, received a score of four out of five for post-menopausal patients with HR+/HER2- advanced breast cancer treated in the first line.
Kisqali was developed by Novartis under a research collaboration with Astex Pharmaceuticals.
For more than 35 years, Novartis has been at the forefront of driving scientific advancements for people touched by breast cancer and improving clinical practice in collaboration with the global community. With one of the most comprehensive breast cancer portfolios and pipeline, Novartis leads the industry in discovery of new therapies and combinations in HR+/HER2- breast cancer, the most common form of the disease.
Powered by WPeMatico
Powered by WPeMatico
Powered by WPeMatico
Odisha- The Odisha Joint Entrance Examination (OJEE) Board has extended the National Eligibility and Entrance Test-Undergraduate (NEET UG) round 3 counselling 2024 reporting deadline due to the recent occurrence of the Cyclone Dana. The announcement has recently been made through a fresh notification by the OJEE.
As per the notification, OJEE has extended the last date for NEET UG Round 3 counselling reporting till October 30, 2024. Initially, the deadline was set between October 24 to October 26, 2024.
The decision of the extension has been taken as the state is preparing for the cyclone. In addition, other educational institutions in Odisha have already been closed and examinations have also been postponed
Along with this, OJEE authorities have strictly instructed the MBBS and BDS candidates who have got fresh allotments in the NEET UG 3rd round of counselling 2024 to report to their respective colleges by the revised deadline i.e. October 30, 2024. Additionally, upgradation round candidates need to report at the OJEE Cell on October 28, 2024, between 10 am and 4 pm. If they do not do so, their seat will be cancelled, which will then be included in the round of vacant seats.
Meanwhile, the schedule for NEET UG stray vacancy round counselling for the academic year 2024 will be announced soon. Therefore, colleges have been directed to facilitate the physical reporting process for the allotted candidates and complete the admission formalities. Also, Deans and principals of colleges have been asked to make necessary arrangements so that the process remains smooth despite weather-related challenges.
On this, the official website highlighted that “Regarding reporting of MBBS/BDS students, Dean and Principals are required to take appropriate decisions at their level for physical reporting of the students keep in view of the situation due to cyclone Dana”.
Powered by WPeMatico
Kozhikode: Amid the National Medical Commission’s directions to the doctors to register themselves on the National Medical Register (NMR), the State Medical Council in Kerala is reportedly planning to create a directory of modern medicine/ allopathy practitioners mentioning their names, registration numbers, qualifications, and additional qualifications.
KSMC is taking these steps to distinguish between “fake” doctors and qualified doctors practising without registering themselves with the Council of Modern Medicine of the Council.
Under the National Medical Commission Act, 2020, and its regulations and the Kerala State Medical Practitioners Act, 2021, it is mandatory for doctors practicing modern medicine in Kerala to get registered with the council.
According to Hindu report, many of the modern medicine practitioners are reportedly practising without registering their MBBS degrees or additional qualifications such as MD/MS/DNB, DM/Mch/DrNB with the state medical council.
Further, they are allegedly exhibiting their other additional qualifications, such as membership of the medical academies and societies, which are not recognised by the NMC.
KSMC officials have opined that practising modern medicine by exhibiting such unregistered and unrecognised qualifications is punishable according to the law. Reportedly, some hospital managements are also found to have been posting advertisements, including the qualifications of medical practitioners and their images, on print and social media. In this regard, the council has warned to take action against such acts with appropriate punishments.
The Hindu has reported that the State Medical Council has now sought a list containing the names, registration numbers, qualifications, and additional qualifications of modern medicine practitioners employed at various hospitals in the State. Heads of these institutes will have to e-mail to the council at ksmcdoctorlist@gmail.com by October 31. Amid this, the Daily has reported that the council is planning to have an online system where people can check the qualifications and other details of modern medicine doctors.
The Council has directed all the modern medicine practitioners to register their MBBS qualification and other additional qualifications with the Council of Modern Medicine. It has directed them to display their registration number, registered qualifications, and registration certificate (legally attested copy) at their place of practice.
As per the direction, the doctors can only use the registration numbers, qualifications and additional qualifications registered with KSMC in their place of practice, prescriptions, seals and letter pads. Further, they have been directed to practice their registered specialities alone.
Meanwhile, the medical colleges, hospitals and clinics in the State have been advised to verify the original KSMC registration certificate of the modern medicine practitioners serving at their institutes to establish their eligibility. Such institutes should also keep attested copies of those certificates. Further, the display boards in all medical colleges, hospitals, and clinics should include the names, qualifications, additional qualifications and registration numbers of the doctors.
Although the State Government has not yet notified the rules for the Kerala State Medical Practitioners Act, 2021, the sources at the Council said that the Department of Law was working on them.
Earlier, it was being speculated that the KSMC might suspend processing new applications for registrations as all the new medical registrations will now be submitted through the central portal of the National Medical Commission (NMC) i.e. the National Medical Register (NMR). Considering this, media reports earlier suggested that the MBBS doctors, who are planning to start practice in the State of Kerala, may encounter delays in the process.
Powered by WPeMatico
Tamil Nadu- In the National Eligibility and Entrance test-Undergraduate (NEET UG) 4th round Counselling, a total of 292 seats are vacant in MBBS and BDS Courses for the academic year 2024 in Tamil Nadu.
The NEET UG 4th Round Counselling 2024 is going to conclude on October 28 2024 and the final result will be published on November 5 2024, therefore the entire process will be completed by 5th November 2024.
NEET UG 4th round counselling 2024 will begin on October 25 and end on October 28, 2024; Interested and eligible candidates are requested to apply for the said counselling through the official website of Tamil Nadu Medical Selection before the time ends.
On this, speaking to The Hindu , the Tamil Nadu Health Minister Ma. Subramanian said on Friday “As for government institutions, there was a single vacant MBBS seat and 23 vacant BDS seats. Under the 7.5% quota, four BDS seats were vacant at private colleges. A total of 67 MBBS seats were vacant at self-financing medical colleges and 61 at deemed universities. As many as 136 BDS seats were vacant at self-financing colleges”.
Furthermore, the Minister also informed that after the festival of Diwali, a meeting will be held with the Union Ministers of Health and AYUSH. At the meeting, he would take up the need to start postgraduate courses in Ayurveda in Tamil Nadu, he said on the sidelines of an event at the Tamil Nadu Dr. MGR Medical University.
It is to be noted that, only those candidates who do not hold any MBBS or BDS seats in the All India Quota or State Quota are eligible to participate in this online counselling. Candidates who have already joined MBBS or BDS seats through the All India or State Quota are not eligible. Additionally, candidates who did not join seats allotted through Tamil Nadu State Counselling Round-3 are also “Not Eligible” to participate in this counselling.
Powered by WPeMatico
Gujarat- The Director of Medical Education (DME) Gujarat has released the vacant seats after reporting of the National Eligibility and Entrance Test-Master of Dental Surgery (NEET MDS) Special Stray Vacancy Round for the academic year 2024-25.
As per the notice issued after reporting of the NEET MDS Special Stray Vacancy Round 2024, a total of 23 seats are vacant across 5 MDS Courses. Below are the vacant seats details-
VACANT SEATS
S.NO |
COURSES |
VACANT SEATS |
1 |
Oral Medicine and Radiology. |
9 |
2 |
Oral Pathology. |
9 |
3 |
Orthodontics. |
1 |
4 |
Periodontics. |
1 |
5 |
Public Health Dentistry. |
3 |
TOTAL |
23 |
Meanwhile, DME Gujarat has recently concluded the NEET MDS Special Stray Vacancy Round 2024 allotment and reporting process for the academic year 2024-25. The online choice-filling process for NEET MDS Special Stray Vacancy Round 2024 will begin on October 15, 2024, and end on October 18, 2024, at 05:00 PM.
ACPPGMEC The Government of Gujarat had constituted the “Admission Committee for Professional Post Graduate Medical Educational Courses (ACPPGMEC)” to regulate the admission of candidates to the CPS Diploma courses. The mission assigned to this Committee is to carry out the counselling process fairly and transparently. The admission process is conducted by this Committee strictly based on the candidate’s merit. The Gujarat Government has also established the Admission Committee for Professional Post-Graduate Medical Educational Courses (ACPPGMEC) to regulate the admission of candidates to professional medical courses. The functions of the Gujarat Medical Council include the maintenance of the Register, and providing for the registration of Medical practitioners, containing the names, and addresses of medical practitioners who possess any of the recognized medical qualifications. to reprimand a practitioner, or to suspend or remove him from the register, or to take such other disciplinary action against him as may, in the opinion of the Council, be necessary or expedient.
To view the vacant seat position, click the link below
Powered by WPeMatico