Karnataka Govt urges Deputy Commissioners to monitor Zika Virus, Dengue Outbreaks

Bengaluru: Amid a surge in the dengue cases in the twin districts of Dakshina Kannada (DK) and Udupi, Karnataka Health Minister Dinesh Gundu Rao urged Deputy Commissioners across the state to remain vigilant regarding the spread of Zika virus and dengue cases.

According to an IANS report, “The Aedes species of mosquitoes also spread the Zika virus. As the Zika virus has been found in the neighbouring state, it is necessary to take precautions in the state. 

One Zika virus case has been detected in Shivamogga. However, it is yet to be confirmed. Though Zika virus is not so dangerous, the Health Department needs to be vigilant,” he said in a video conference meeting of all DCs and CEOs and officers of local authorities.

Also Read:Health Ministry Issues Zika Virus Advisory for States as Cases Rise in Maharashtra

The minister also asked the officers to detect the dengue hotspots and destroy them on utmost priority. The directions were also given to open fever clinics where more cases of dengue are reported, and the testing of persons with symptoms of dengue. “If dengue is detected at an early stage it can be cured and if delayed, deaths occur. Deaths related to dengue should not occur. Taking precautions to avoid deaths should be the primary concern,” he said, news agency IANS reported.

Considering the rising cases of dengue, the state government has capped the prices of dengue testing at Rs 600. Karnataka has witnessed a rise of 42 per cent in dengue cases as compared to last year and 6,187 positive cases of dengue have been detected in the state while six persons have died from January to July 2. Cases have been reported from Bengaluru, Chikkamagaluru, Mysuru, Haveri, Chitradurga, Shivamogga, and Dakshina Kannada districts.

Also Read:Pune doctor, daughter test positive for Zika virus; Municipal Health Dept on alert

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MSc Nursing Admissions 2024: BOPEE Releases Instructions, Admit Card For Entrance Test Candidates

Jammu & Kashmir- Jammu & Kashmir Board of Professional Entrance Examination (J&K BOPEE) through a notice has informed all the eligible candidates appearing in the Common Entrance Test (CET) for admission to the MSc Nursing Course 2024 in various Government/Private Institutions of Union Territory of Jammu & Kashmir that the online admit cards are now available for download from the official website of BOPEE.

Along with this, BOPEE has also provided certain instructions for Candidates appearing in CET for MSc Nursing Course 2024 at various Government/Private Institutions of UT of J&K. Apart from this, a tentative timetable for the Common Entrance Examination has also been released.

Also Read: BOPPE Announces Common Entrance Test Date for MSc Nursing Admissions 2024, Admit Card To Release Soon

As per the notice, the CET entrance exam for MSc Nursing Course 2024 will be held on July 14, 2024 (Sunday) from 10:00 am to 12:00 pm. On the day of the examination, candidates are required to bring the original copy of their Aadhar Card/PAN Card/Driving License/Passport/Photo ID Card issued by the concerned college/Employer ID along with the admit card for their identification.

Also, candidates must ensure to affix their latest passport-size photograph on the electronic admit card (if not available on the admit card) after downloading the admit card from the official website of BOPEE.

Also Read: GNM, ANM Admissions 2024: BOPEE Releases instructions, Admit Card For Entrance test candidates

Below is the tentative timetable for the CET-

TENTATIVE TIME SCHEDULE FOR THE COMMON ENTRANCE EXAMINATION

S.NO

TIME

ACTIVITY

1

08:45 AM

Reporting time at the Examination Centre(s) / College(s).

2

09:25 AM

Reporting time in the Examination Hall(s).

3

09:30 AM

The Invigilator shall ascertain the identity of each candidate by comparing his/her facial appearance with the photograph given on the admit card and attendance sheet. The centre Supervisor shall also check the identity of the candidates and ensure that only the genuine candidates have been allowed to sit in the examination hall. There shall be no case of impersonation.

4

09:45 AM

Candidates will be given an OMR Answer Sheet. They will go through the instructions printed on it and fill in their particulars on the OMR Answer Sheet.

5

09:55 AM

Candidates will be given Question Booklets. The Question Booklet number is to be entered on the OMR Answer Sheet.

6

10:00 AM

Candidates will break open the seal of the Question Booklet and start attempting the questions.

7

12:00 P.M

Candidates will remain in their seats. They will hand over their original OMR Answer Sheet to the Invigilator, take the Question Booklet and OMR candidate’s copy with them, and leave the examination hall only when asked to leave.

IMPORTANT GUIDELINES

1 For the candidate’s convenience, they are advised to visit the venue of their Exam Centre any day before the start of the Entrance Examination.

2 The candidates should report to the examination centre on time as per the above time schedule. No candidate will be allowed to enter the Examination Hall after the prescribed time given above.

3 Tab, Smart Phone, Mobile Phone, Pager, Bluetooth Device, Camera, Calculator or any other communication /electronic device /Tablet is not allowed inside the premises of the Examination Centre. If a candidate is found carrying any one of these devices in the Examination Centre, his/her candidature will be cancelled including a ban for future examination/selection. The candidates are advised to keep their electronic gadgets at their residences.

4 The present status of the candidates shown on the Admit Card or on any other document of the BOPEE is purely provisional and subject to subsequent verification/eligibility by the Board and other Competent Bodies.

5 The candidate(s) who has/have submitted wrong/false information and has/have managed to appear in the Common Entrance Test will be disqualified from being considered for admission and if admission is granted on the basis of such information, his / her admission shall be cancelled and departmental action / criminal prosecution, where ever applicable, shall be recommended/initiated against them.

6 Mere appearing in the Common Entrance Test cannot be in any way taken as a guarantee for the selection of the course.

7 The candidates are advised to go through the instructions given in the Electronic Information Brochure and particularly read instructions for filling up of the OMR answer sheet very carefully.

8 The candidates should check their Question Booklets before attempting any question and should ensure that the Booklet contains 120 questions. In case of any missing question/page / blank page or damaged/defaced Question Booklet, it shall be the sole responsibility of the candidate concerned to report it to the Invigilator and get it replaced by the same series, failing which no complaint can be entertained afterwards.

9 The candidates are informed that the Answer Key of the Question papers will be uploaded on the BOPEE website either on 14th July 2024 at around 06:00 P.M or upto 02:00 P.M next day which will remain there for three days (i.e. 15th, 16th and 17th July 2024) up to 05:00 pm and thereafter it will be removed. The candidates, who have any complaint against any Answer to a Question in the Question Booklet are free to make written representation supported by documentary proof from standard Text Books in the prescribed format available on the official website of the BOPEE and in the BOPEE office at Srinagar / Jammu, which should reach at the BOPEE office (Srinagar/ Jammu) within stipulated time as above and thereafter no representation will be entertained/accepted. The candidates interested in making representation online/offline shall have to pay a fee of Rs 1000/- which can be paid by Debit Card/Credit Card/ATM Card through POS Machines available at the BOPEE office in Jammu/Srinagar. These representations, in a consolidated form, will be given due consideration by the experts whose decision will be final. On the basis of the decision of these experts, a revised Answer Key, if required, will be uploaded again on the Website of the Board. No representation will be entertained on the revised Answer Key.

10 The candidate must ensure before handing over his / her OMR Answer Sheet to the concerned Invigilator that the entries made by him/her are correct. The Board shall not be responsible for any mistake committed by the candidate in this regard.

11 Any case(s) of impersonation will be dealt with seriously. Any candidate found involved in impersonation will be liable for criminal prosecution for fraud/forgery/impersonation and criminal breach of trust, apart from cancellation of his/her candidature.

To view the notice, click the link below

https://medicaldialogues.in/pdf_upload/j-k-243296.pdf

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ChargePoint Technology unveils new subsidiary in India

ChargePoint Technology has launched a new subsidiary, ChargePoint UK Private Ltd to expand its presence in India. The subsidiary will focus on business development and providing services tailored to the Company’s Indian customers and the broader market.

ChargePoint has recruited six team members for business development, technical service, and aftercare. 

Suresh Chandra has been appointed as Commercial Manager. Manish Chitroda and Pradeep Puduru will join as sales manager across West and South India.

Whereas, Sai Srinivas and Vinayak Bhat join as Field Technical Support Engineers. Gahana Kengeri Jayakumar appointed as AfterCare Support Executive.

Commenting on the firm’s global expansion, our Chris Eccles, said, “The Indian pharmaceutical industry ranks third globally in terms of production by volume and is expected to be valued at $130 billion by 2030.

We’ve been operating in India for over 15 years and have already achieved significant success with our AseptiSafe bio and other containment solutions. As a result, it has been imperative to set up local operations in the region to provide round-the-clock support for our customers. With demand for pharmaceutical manufacturing rapidly increasing in this territory, this has made India a crucial market for our future growth opportunities.”

ChargePoint Technology is a global company with a focus to support and advance the pharmaceutical manufacturing industry, 

Read also: Shilpa Medicare CDMO customer reports positive results from Oxylanthanum Carbonate trial

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NEET 2024 Results Row: Toppers not from certain centres, High scores mainly due to syllabus reduction, NTA tells SC

New Delhi: In its recent affidavit filed before the Supreme Court, the National Testing Agency (NTA) has denied the allegations that the students scoring high marks in the National Eligibility-Entrance Test Undergraduate (NEET-UG) 2024 exam were from certain centres.

Terming such allegations to be “unsubstantiated”, NTA has cited an analysis of the top 100 candidates’s results. Referring to their marksheets, NTA submitted that the top results were distributed across 95 centres located in 56 cities.

According to NTA, the major factor that played a role of so many candidates scoring full marks was a reduction in the syllabus for the undergraduate medical entrance test.

“This diverse distribution highlights the widespread participation and competitive spirit among students from different regions and educational backgrounds,” NTA submitted.

“The most prominent factor in 61 candidates scoring 720/720 is due to the reduction in the syllabus, which was done to enable the candidates to focus on the core concepts and to alleviate pressure on students who faced challenges in completing their studies due to pandemic in 2019-20,” it added in the affidavit. 

Also Read: Cancelling NEET 2024 would jeopardize career prospects of honest qualified candidates: Centre, NTA tell Supreme Court

Apart from this, NTA in its affidavit, also highlighted that the number of candidates appearing for the exam has increased to 23,33,297, compared to 20,38,596 last year. Referring to this, NTA submitted that the increase in the number of candidates appearing in the exam was one of the many factors responsible for the high percentile among the students.

“Therefore, the mark interval is nominal and only due to an increase in the number of candidates. In this regard, a comparative analysis has been made in the form of graphical representations to show that the candidate counts of both the years, against the mark’s interval is nominal and only due to the increase in the candidate count,” the Agency submitted, Live Law has reported.

NTA further referred to another factor, i.e., a reduction in the syllabus, which was done so that the candidates could focus on the core concepts. Another reason for this syllabus reduction was that it would alleviate pressure on the students facing challenges due to the pandemic in 2019-2020.

“The syllabus was reduced by approximately 22-25% compared to last year, removing difficult and time- consuming chapters like P Block in chemistry and conceptual chapters in biology. It is submitted that this reduction significantly lessened the burden of studies on students, focusing on a more concise syllabus, which benefited the candidates in preparing for the examination effectively and comprehensively,” NTA submitted.

Further, NTA also submitted that the question papers were based on universally used books. This was done to ensure a reduced reliance on the coaching institutions.

“Though the syllabus was reduced, the time remained the same and so did the choice of questions in Section B of each subject in the Question paper. Therefore, the candidates appearing in NEET (UG) 2024 were administered a QP which was balanced, based out of a reduced syllabus and was to be attempted in 03 hrs 20 minutes,” NTA submitted.

According to the agency, the increase in the cut-off marks in 2024 NEET-UG exam reflected the competitive nature of the examination and higher performance standards achieved by the candidates.

Filing this affidavit, NTA opposed the pleas filed before the Supreme Court seeking cancellation of the NEET-UG 2024 examination. The same affidavit has also been filed in the case filed by the petitioner Vanshika Yadav as well. In that plea, the petitioner urged the Court to conduct the NEET UG exams afresh considering the alleged malpractices and paper leak of the exam.

Even though previously the Supreme Court bench comprising the Chief Justice of India DY Chandrachud issued notice on the plea and posted the matter for further hearing in July, the Apex Court bench stated that the results of the exams held on a pan-India basis could not be stayed.

Meanwhile, the Union Government also filed an affidavit before Supreme Court on Friday in the NEET issue and opposed the cancellation of the NEET-UG 2024 exam. The Central Government said that it would not be rational to scrap the entire exam in the absence of any proof of a large-scape breach of confidentiality.

“Scrapping the exam in its entirety would seriously jeopardise the lakhs of honest candidates who attempted the question paper in 2024,” the Union Ministry of Education stated in its affidavit filed before the Supreme Court. 

“In the absence of any proof of any large-scale breach of confidentiality in a pan-India examination, it would not be rational to scrap the entire examination and the results already declared,” the affidavit further stated, Hindustan Times has reported.

Medical Dialogues had earlier reported that filing an affidavit, NTA also told the Supreme Court that the cancellation of the controversy-ridden NEET 2024 examination would be hugely counterproductive and significantly harmful to the larger public interest, especially to the career prospects of those who cleared it.

“The cancellation of the entire examination on the basis of the aforesaid factor, would be hugely counterproductive and significantly harmful to the larger public interest, especially to the career prospects of the qualified candidates,” NTA said. 

Meanwhile, several pleas alleging discrepancies and paper leak in the NEET UG 2024 exam are scheduled for a hearing before the Supreme Court on Monday i.e. 8th July, 2024. Even though, the Apex Court had denied postponing the NEET UG 2024 counselling, the counselling that was scheduled to commence from 6th July 2024 has been deferred.

This year’s NEET UG 2024 exam was mired in controversies after a paper leak scam came to light. Medical Dialogues had earlier reported that around 13 people, including four examinees and their family members, were arrested in Bihar for their alleged involvement in the paper leak of the NEET-UG exam. Patna police sources had previously claimed that the NEET-UG question papers along with their answers were provided to around 20 aspirants a day before the date of the exam i.e. May 5, 2024.

Then, the Economic Offences Unit (EOU) of Bihar Police, which took over the investigation, revealed that the brokers involved in the NEET paper leak scam took between Rs 30 lakh to Rs 50 lakh from each of the medical aspirants in exchange for giving them the question paper of the NEET UG 2024 question paper ahead of the examination.

Multiple pleas have been filed before the High Courts and the Supreme Court seeking an investigation into the alleged paper leak scam. Some of the pleas demanded the scrapping of the NEET UG 2024 exam and holding a retest.

Meanwhile, during the case proceedings, NTA earlier decided to withdraw the grace marks awarded to 1563 candidates and hold an optional retest for those candidates. Those who did not opt for the retest were allowed to retain their original marks, without the grace marks.

The matter is now being investigated by the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI). Central Government on June 22, 2024, handed over the charge of investigating in the alleged irregularities in the NEET UG 2024 examination to the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI).

Earlier, while considering the NEET-related pleas, the Supreme Court had refused to defer the counselling/seat allotment process scheduled to commence on July 6. However, the bench had orally observed that the admissions would be subject to the final outcome of the petitions and if the exams were set aside, the counselling would get invalidated consequentially.

The Top Court had also expressed its concern over the alleged discrepancies in the NEET UG 2024 exam. The Court had noted that even ‘0.001& negligence’ in conducting the NEET-UG 2024 exams would be looked into with all seriousness considering the immense labor put in by the candidates for the prestigious examination.

Also Read: Postponed! NEET 2024 Counselling Likely to Begin at month end, Schedule not Finalised Yet: Report

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Can Inhaling Hydrogen Peroxide and Distilled Water Treat Common Viral Infections?

Claim: An Instagram story shared by actress Samantha Ruth Prabhu has gone viral. With over 35 million followers on Instagram, the actress claimed that inhaling a mixture of hydrogen peroxide and distilled water is an alternative medication for common viral infections. She wrote, “Before taking medication for a common viral, consider trying an alternative approach. One option is to nebulize with a mixture of hydrogen peroxide and distilled water. Works like magic. Avoid unnecessary use of medicine. #alternativemedicine.” The story can be seen here.

Fact Check: This claim is false
Understanding Common Viral Infections: 

A common viral infection is an illness caused by a virus, a microscopic parasite that invades and replicates within human cells. Unlike bacteria, viruses lack the machinery to reproduce independently. (1)

Transmission: Viruses can spread in various ways, including Airborne transmission (coughing, sneezing), Direct contact (touching an infected person or contaminated surface), Bodily fluids (saliva, blood) and Animal bites (depending on the virus).

Symptoms vary depending on the specific virus but can include: Fever, Fatigue, Cough, Sore throat, Runny or stuffy nose, Muscle aches and Diarrhea.

How are common viral treated?

Dr Kamal Kant Kohli, Chest Specialist, explained the treatment followed in case of common viral infections , “Common viral infections are usually treated by managing the symptoms. This includes getting plenty of rest, staying well-hydrated, and using over-the-counter medications to relieve symptoms such as fever, cough, and congestion. In certain cases, a healthcare professional may prescribe antiviral medications. It’s important to consult a doctor for an accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment plan, as they can provide guidance tailored to your specific condition and needs.”

It is also important to consult a doctor and get proper medical investigation to understand the cause of viral infections, as certain infectious diseases can appear like a common viral infection but may have serious consequences. 

Can inhaling a mixture of hydrogen peroxide and distilled water be an alternative for medications for common viral?

No, there is no scientific evidence or medical consensus that states that a mixture of hydrogen peroxide and distilled water be an alternative for medications for common viral infection. In fact, there is a lot of evidence and consensus against the indiscriminate use of hydrogen peroxide.

This was also seen during the COVID-19 pandemic, when the Asthma and Allergy Foundation of America emphasized that hydrogen peroxide should not be used in a nebulizer and inhaled. They said, ” A concerning and dangerous trend is circulating on social media channels like Facebook, Twitter, and TikTok. People are breathing in hydrogen peroxide through nebulizers to try to prevent or treat COVID-19. DO NOT put hydrogen peroxide into your nebulizer and breathe it in. This is dangerous! It is not a way to prevent nor treat COVID-19.” (2)

According to the Agency for Toxic Substances and Disease Registry, a federal public health agency under the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services which focuses on preventing harmful exposures and diseases related to toxic substances- Hydrogen peroxide can be toxic if ingested, inhaled, or by contact with the skin or eyes. Inhalation of household-strength hydrogen peroxide (3%) can cause respiratory irritation. Inhalation of vapours from concentrated (higher than 10%) solutions may result in severe pulmonary irritation.” (3)

An article published in Cureus by Andrew Manfra et. al. concluded that Inhalation of hydrogen peroxide might produce acute pneumonitis distinct from what has been described previously with chronic inhalation. (4)

What do experts say?

This post coming from a leading actor has garnered a lot of attention prompting medical experts to come out and warn against the claim made inn the post 

Dr. Cyriac Abby Philips, also known as Liverdoc, responded to the claim and criticzed the actor for her endorsement of unscientific and pseudoscientific alternative medicine therapies. He highlighted the need for a rational and logical response from Samantha, suggesting that she should delete posts that endanger public health, apologize to her followers, and commit to not endorsing fraudulent practices in the future

“The Asthma and Allergy Foundation of America warns people not to nebulize and breathe in hydrogen peroxide because it is dangerous for health. In a rational and scientifically progressive society, this woman would be charged with endangering public health and fined or put behind bars. She needs help or a better advisor in her team.” 

The Medical Dialogues Fact Check Team spoke with Dr Mrigakshi Aggarwal, Pulmonologist at Sanjeevan Hospital, New Delhi, she said, “Inhaling a mixture of hydrogen peroxide and distilled water is not a safe or effective treatment for common viral infections. Hydrogen peroxide can cause significant damage to the respiratory tract and other tissues. Patients should rely on evidence-based treatments and consult healthcare professionals for managing viral infections.”

Medical Dialogues Final Take: 

There is no scientific evidence or medical consensus to support the claim that inhaling a mixture of hydrogen peroxide and distilled water is an effective treatment for common viral infections. In fact, medical experts and authoritative health organizations, including the Agency for Toxic Substances and Disease Registry (ATSDR) and the Asthma and Allergy Foundation of America, have warned against the use of hydrogen peroxide in nebulizers due to its potential to cause serious respiratory damage and other health risks. It is crucial for individuals to rely on evidence-based treatments and consult healthcare professionals for managing viral infections. Misinformation, especially when spread by influential figures, can have dangerous consequences and compromise public health.

Hence, this claim is FALSE.

References

1. World Health Organization. Viruses. https://www.who.int/emergencies/disease-outbreak-news

2. DANGER! Don’t Nebulize Hydrogen Peroxide and Breathe It to Try to Treat or Prevent COVID-19 | Asthma and Allergy Foundation of America (aafa.org)

3. Agency for Toxic Substances and Disease Registry. (2002). Hydrogen Peroxide (CAS #7722-84-1) Fact Sheet. Retrieved from https://www.atsdr.cdc.gov/toxfaqs/tfacts174.pdf

4. Manfra A, Sharma J, Kilburn J. Inhalation Pneumonitis Caused by Nebulized Hydrogen Peroxide. Cureus. 2023 Apr 25;15(4):e38116. doi: 10.7759/cureus.38116. PMID: 37252527; PMCID: PMC10212745.

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AstraZeneca Pharma India gets CDSCO Panel Nod to study anti-cancer drug Datopotamab deruxtecan/Rilvegostomig

New Delhi: The drug major AstraZeneca Pharma India has got the go-ahead from the Subject Expert Committee (SEC) functional under the Central Drug Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) to conduct the phase 3 clinical study of the anti-cancer drug Datopotamab deruxtecan (DS-1062a) 100mg/ vial Rilvegostomig (AZD2936) 750 mg/vial (50 mg/ml).

This came after AstraZeneca Pharma India presented phase 3 clinical study protocol no. D7632C00001 version 1.0, dated 30 October 2023. This is a Phase III, randomized, open-label, global study of Datopotamab Deruxtecan (Dato-DXd) in Combination With Rilvegostomig or Rilvegostomig monotherapy versus Pembrolizumab monotherapy for the first-line treatment of participants with locally advanced or metastatic non-squamous NSCLC with high PD-L1 expression (TC ≥ 50%) and without actionable genomic alterations.

The purpose of this study is to evaluate the efficacy and safety of Dato-DXd in combination with rilvegostomig or rilvegostomig monotherapy compared with pembrolizumab monotherapy as a first line therapy in participants with locally advanced or metastatic non-squamous NSCLC with high PD-L1 expression (TC ≥ 50%) and without actionable genomic alterations.

Non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC) is a disease in which malignant (cancer) cells form in the tissues of the lung.

Datopotamab deruxtecan (Dato-DXd) is an antibody-drug conjugate consisting of a humanized antitrophoblast cell-surface antigen 2 (TROP2) monoclonal antibody linked to a potent, exatecan-derived topoisomerase I inhibitor payload via a plasma-stable, selectively cleavable linker.

Rilvegostomig simultaneously targets, binds to and inhibits PD-1 and TIGIT and their downstream signaling pathways. Inhibition of PD-1-mediated signaling may restore immune function through the activation of T-cells and T-cell-mediated immune responses.

At the recent SEC meeting for Oncology held on June 18, 2024, the expert panel reviewed phase 3 clinical study protocol no. D7632C00001 version 1.0 dated 30 October 2023.

After detailed deliberation, the committee recommended the grant of permission to conduct the trial as presented by the firm.

Also Read: CDSCO Panel Approves AstraZeneca pharma’s Protocol Amendment proposal to study Anifrolumab

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FMGE: Kerala police finds no evidence of paper leak so far

In the case of FMGE June question paper going up for sale on social media, the Kerala police has found no evidence of paper leak so far.

Speaking to PTI, the police said presently there is no evidence that anyone has received the Foreign Medical Graduate Examination question papers and answer keys as was circulated on social media a day ago.

For more information, click on the link below:

FMGE ‘Paper Leak’: No Evidence Of Sale, Receipt Of Question Paper So Far, Confirms Kerala Police


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NMC data reveals glaring stipend disparity among resident doctors

Despite the National Medical Commission’s directive to implement a uniform stipend, there is still a glaring disparity of stipend paid to resident doctors in a specific State/UT or all across the country.

The existing disparity in the stipend amount came to light as the NMC released the data regarding the students admitted through the National Eligibility-and-Entrance Test Postgraduate (NEET-PG) examination 2023, which is available on the official website of the Commission.

For more information, click on the link below:

From Rs 15k To Rs 1.25 Lakh Per Month: NMC Data Reveals Glaring Stipend Disparity

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Walk In Interview for JR Post At AIIMS Patna, Check All Details Here

Patna: The All India Institute of Medical Sciences, (AIIMS Patna) has announced vacancies for the post of Junior Resident on an Ad hoc basis.

AIIMS, Patna an Autonomous Institute of National Importance is one of the new AIIMS and apex healthcare Institutes established by the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, Government of India under the Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Suraksha Yojna (PMSSY).

AIIMS Patna Vacancy Details:

Total No of Vacancies: 15

Date of Walk-In-Interview: 15th July 2024.

Reporting Time & Venue: 07:30 AM at E-classroom, Administrative Building, AIIMS Patna

Time & Venue for Walk-in Interview: From 09:00 AM onwards at Committee Room, Administrative Building, AIIMS Patna

For more details about Qualification, Age, Pay Allowance, and much more, click on the given link below:
https://medicaljob.in/jobs.php?post_type=&job_tags=AIIMS+Patna&location=&job_sector=all

Eligible Candidates (How to Apply):-

FILLING UP OF APPLICATION FORM ON THE DATE OF WALK-IN INTERVIEW:

a. For filling up of application on the date of walk-in interview, the candidates have to bring the following documents (original and one set of self-attested copies) which also needs to be produced at the time of walk-in interview:-

b. Recent Passport size photograph of candidate

c. face clearly visible ? The picture should be in color, against a light-colored, preferably white background

d. Caps, hats and dark glasses are not acceptable. Religious headwear is allowed but it must not cover your face.

e. Demand Draft in original (if applicable) Identity Proof (Aadhar Card/ Pan Card/Passport/ Driving Licence/ Voter Card etc.)

f. Date of Birth/SSC/HSSC pass certificate (mentioning Date of Birth)

g. MBBS Provisional / Degree Certificate

h. FMGE Certificate conducted by NBE (for Foreign Medical Graduate) in case MBBS Graduated outside India.

i. Internship Completion Certificate

j. UG NMC/State Registration Certificate

k. Experience Certificate, if any

l. NOC from present employer (applicable for those working in Govt./Pvt. organization)

m. Any other relevant documents (viz. Research Work, Publication etc.)

n. The candidates are requested to fill the correct details regarding name/age/gender/caste/address/educational qualification and other relevant fields mentioned in the application form.

o. Once form is submitted, there shall be no provision for making changes in the application form.

p. Payment of application fees by any other mode viz. Cash, Cheque, Money Orders, Postal Orders, Pay Orders, Banker’s Cheques, Postal Stamps, etc., will not be accepted. Such applications will be summarily rejected. The decision of Executive Director, AIIMS Patna in this regard shall be final and binding.

Also Read:100 Vacancies For SR Post At JIPMER Puducherry: Apply Now

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Health Bulletin 06/ July/ 2024

Here are the top health stories for the day:

NMC report highlights glaring stipend gap: Rs 15k to Rs 1.25 lakh per month

Despite the National Medical Commission’s directive to implement a uniform stipend, there is still a glaring disparity of stipend paid to resident doctors in a specific State/UT or all across the country.

The existing disparity in the stipend amount came to light as the NMC released the data regarding the students admitted through the National Eligibility-and-Entrance Test Postgraduate (NEET-PG) examination 2023, which is available on the official website of the Commission.

For more information, click on the link below:

From Rs 15k To Rs 1.25 Lakh Per Month: NMC Data Reveals Glaring Stipend Disparity

FMGE exam paper leak: Kerala Police take action against online sale

In the case of FMGE June question paper going up for sale on social media, the Kerala police has found no evidence of paper leak so far.

Speaking to PTI, the police said presently there is no evidence that anyone has received the Foreign Medical Graduate Examination question papers and answer keys as was circulated on social media a day ago.

For more information, click on the link below:

FMGE ‘Paper Leak’: No Evidence Of Sale, Receipt Of Question Paper So Far, Confirms Kerala Police


Managing the ‘silent killer’ high cholesterol: India gets first-ever guidelines

India has seen a troubling rise in heart attacks among younger individuals, with cardiovascular diseases (CVD), including strokes and heart attacks, occurring a decade earlier in Indians.

Dyslipidemia, or high cholesterol, is a significant risk factor for CVD. In response, the Cardiological Society of India (CSI) has released the first-ever guidelines tailored for managing dyslipidemia in Indians.

Misleading ultra-processed food ads contributing to obesity and diabetes in India: Report

A recent report titled “50 Shades of Food Advertising” by the Nutrition Advocacy in Public Interest (NAPi) highlights the misleading nature of advertisements for unhealthy high-fat, high-salt, and sugar (HFSS) foods and ultra-processed foods (UPF). These ads, described as appealing and deceptive, are contributing to rising obesity and diabetes rates in India. The observational study analysed 50 advertisements from popular English and Hindi newspapers and TV commercials, noting the use of emotional appeals, celebrity endorsements, and false health claims to manipulate consumers.

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