Iron supplementation not effective in optimizing psychomotor development in full-term healthy breastfed infants: JAMA

Iron supplementation is not effective in optimising psychomotor development in full-term healthy breastfed infants suggests a study published in the JAMA.

Breastfed infants are at risk of iron deficiency, which is associated with suboptimal development. There is a paucity of evidence on the effects of iron supplementation on child development, and current guidelines are divergent. A study was done to assess whether daily iron supplementation, 1 mg/kg, between 4 and 9 months in exclusively or predominantly breastfed infants improves psychomotor development at 12 months. This was a randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled trial conducted between December 2015 and May 2020 with follow-up through May 2023 in an outpatient setting in Poland and Sweden. Participants were healthy singleton infants born at term with birth weight greater than 2500 g who were exclusively or predominantly breastfed (>50%) and did not have anemia (hemoglobin >10.5 g/dL) at age 4 months. Exclusion criteria included major illness, congenital anomaly, food allergy, and difficulty communicating with caregivers. The primary outcome was psychomotor development assessed by motor score of Bayley Scales of Infant and Toddler Development III at 12 months, adjusted for gestational age, sex, and maternal education. Secondary outcomes included cognitive and language scores at 12 months; motor, cognitive, and language scores at 24 and 36 months; iron deficiency (serum ferritin <12 ng/mL), and iron deficiency anemia (iron deficiency and hemoglobin <10.5 g/dL) at 12 months. Results: Of 221 randomized infants (111 female), 200 (90%) were included in the intention-to-treat analysis (mean [SD] age, 12.4 [0.8] months). Iron supplementation (n = 104) compared to placebo (n = 96) had no effect on psychomotor development (mean difference [MD] for motor score, −1.07 points; 95% CI, −4.69 to 2.55), cognitive score (MD, −1.14; 95% CI, −4.26 to 1.99), or language score (MD, 0.75; 95% CI, −2.31 to 3.82) at 12 months. There were no significant differences at 24 and 36 months. The intervention did not reduce the risk for iron deficiency (relative risk [RR], 0.46; 95% CI, 0.16 to 1.30) or iron deficiency anemia (RR, 0.78; 95% CI, 0.05 to 12.46) at 12 months. No benefit was found with daily low-dose iron supplementation between 4 and 9 months with respect to psychomotor development, risk of iron deficiency, or iron deficiency anemia among breastfed infants in a setting of low risk of anemia.

Reference:

Svensson L, Chmielewski G, Czyżewska E, et al. Effect of Low-Dose Iron Supplementation on Early Development in Breastfed Infants: A Randomized Clinical Trial. JAMA Pediatr. Published online May 13, 2024. doi:10.1001/jamapediatrics.2024.1095

Keywords:

Iron, supplementation, effective, optimizing, psychomotor, development, full term, healthy, breastfed, infants, JAMA, Svensson L, Chmielewski G, Czyżewska E

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Triple-combination gel therapy for acne effective in achieving skin clearance: Study

A recent study published in the Dermatology and Therapy journal demonstrated the efficacy of a triple-combination topical gel in treating moderate-to-severe acne in both adolescents and adults. The study evaluated the effectiveness and safety of the first fixed-dose, triple-combination topical acne product which could potentially revolutionize acne treatment.

The study pooled phase 3 data and focused on the unique approach to acne treatment which was by combining an antibiotic, antimicrobial and retinoid in a single formulation. The triple-combination gel that consisted of clindamycin 1.2%, adapalene 0.15% and benzoyl peroxide (BPO) 3.1% showed superior efficacy by reducing the risk of antibiotic resistance when compared to single or double treatments.

This study was conducted in two identical phase 3 trials by including a total of 363 participants of 9 years and above and employed a double-blind, 12-week regimen. The participants were randomized to receive once-daily application of the triple-combination gel or a vehicle gel.

The results of the study at the end of the 12-week period showed a remarkable success in the 50.0% of participants treated with the triple-combination gel. This is defined as a two-grade reduction from baseline in the Evaluator’s Global Severity Score and clear or almost clear skin when compared to only 22.6% of the participants using the vehicle gel.

The triple-combination gel demonstrated significant reductions in both inflammatory and noninflammatory lesions by exceeding 70% reductions at week 12 where the result were significantly greater than that observed with the vehicle gel. Also, the treatment was well-tolerated with most treatment-emergent adverse events being of mild to moderate severity. Only a small percentage of participants discontinued the treatment due to adverse events.

Although transient increases in side effects like the scaling, erythema, itching, burning and stinging were observed with the triple-combination gel and these effects were resolved by the end of the 12-week treatment period. Overall, the implications of this study provide a high level of efficacy while maintaining tolerability with the help of this innovative triple-combination gel for acne treatment.

Source:

Kircik, L. H., Stein Gold, L., Gold, M., Weiss, J. S., Harper, J. C., Del Rosso, J. Q., Bunick, C. G., Bhatia, N., Tanghetti, E. A., Eichenfield, L. F., Baldwin, H., Draelos, Z. D., Callender, V. D., Han, G., Gooderham, M. J., Sadick, N., Lupo, M. P., Lain, E., & Werschler, W. P. (2024). Triple Combination Clindamycin Phosphate 1.2%/Adapalene 0.15%/Benzoyl Peroxide 3.1% for Acne: Efficacy and Safety from a Pooled Phase 3 Analysis. In Dermatology and Therapy. Springer Science and Business Media LLC. https://doi.org/10.1007/s13555-024-01155-7

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ICMR-NIREH invites applications for Summer Internship Program in Environmental Epigenetics, Register Now

Bhopal- Indian Council of Medical Research-National Institute for Research in Environmental Health (ICMR-NIREH) is going to organise “IXth Summer Internship Program in Environmental Epigenetics”.

This Summer Internship Program in Environmental Epigenetics is a 15-day hands-on training course scheduled from 12th to 28th June 2024 offered by ICMR-NIREH, Bhopal. Participants of this programme will experience the excitement of working in a unique academic ambience apt for cutting-edge scientific discourse. During this programme greater emphasis will be laid on the fundamental wet-lab tools and techniques relevant to environmental epigenetics.

Candidates interested to participate in this summer internship program must submit the application form through Google Form on or before May 30, 2024. The link to Google Form is mentioned in the brochure issued by ICMR regarding this internship program. Meanwhile, ICMR has clearly stated in the brochure that there are only 20 seats for the program hence only 20 students will be admitted to the course on “first come first serve” basis.

Additionally, candidates have to pay Rs 10000/= as registration fee (excluding food, travel and accommodation charges).

Candidates who are pursuing undergraduate, postgraduate and doctoral courses are eligible and encouraged to apply for this summer internship programme.

Moreover, as per the Brochure, basic and advanced techniques pertaining to the field of environmental epigenetics will be covered in this Internship.

COURSE CONTENT

1 Isolation of DNA, RNA & Proteins.

2 PCR and Reverse Transcriptase PCR.

3 Agarose Gel Electrophoresis.

4 Real Time PCR.

5 Multiplex RT-RT PCR.

6 SDS-PAGE & Western Blot Analysis.

7 Double Sandwich ELISA.

8 mtDNA Fragmentomics and Mutation Analysis.

9 Mitochondrial ISR Analysis.

10 Methylation-Specific PCR.

11 Histone Methylation Arrays.

12 MicroRNA Characterization.

13 lncRNA Isolation & Identification.

14 RNA Methylation Analysis.

15 mtDNA Methylation Analysis.

16 Multi-photon Image Analysis.

17 Nano Cytometry Analysis.

18 ddPCR Based Assays.

19 Principles of Bioethics.

20 Biosafety and GLP Practices.

21 Flow Cytometric Assays

It should be noted that participants will have to make their own arrangements for food and travel. Accommodation is available on a shared basis in the guest house of the Institute on payment basis.

For any further queries, candidates may contact the course coordinator.

To view the brochure, click the link below

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Submit preliminary analysis of primary data of subjects above 18 years in India: CDSCO Panel Tells Sanofi on Amlitelimab study

New Delhi: After considering the phase III clinical study protocol of the monoclonal antibody Amlitelimab in the treatment of moderate-to-severe Atopic Dermatitis, the Subject Expert Committee (SEC) functional under the Central Drug Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) has opined the drug major Sanofi to submit the preliminary analysis of primary data of subjects above 18 years in India.

This came after the drug major Sanofi presented Phase III clinical study protocol No. EFC17600 version No. 01 dated 01.02.2024.

Atopic dermatitis (eczema) is a condition that causes dry, itchy, and inflamed skin. It’s common in young children but can occur at any age. Atopic dermatitis is long-lasting (chronic) and tends to flare sometimes. It can be irritating but it’s not contagious. People with atopic dermatitis are at risk of developing food allergies, hay fever, and asthma. Moisturizing regularly and following other skin care habits can relieve itching and prevent new outbreaks (flares). It is an inflammatory skin disease with significant unmet needs.

Amlitelimab is a fully human non-T cell depleting monoclonal antibody that blocks OX40-Ligand, a key immune regulator, and has the potential to be a first- or best-in-class treatment for a range of immune-mediated diseases and inflammatory disorders, including moderate-to-severe atopic dermatitis.

Amlitelimab’s mechanism focusing on OX40-Ligand is tailored to recalibrate the balance between the body’s pro-inflammatory and regulatory T cells.

Blockade of the OX40-OX40 ligand (OX40L) costimulation pathway by targeting OX40L on antigen-presenting cells (APCs) with a fully human noncytotoxic, nondepleting anti-OX40L monoclonal antibody (amlitelimab) is a novel way to modulate persistent inflammation.

At the recent SEC meeting for dermatology and allergy held on 14th May 2024, the expert panel reviewed the Phase III clinical study protocol No. EFC17600 version No. 01 dated 01.02.2024.

After detailed deliberation, the committee opined that the firm should submit a preliminary analysis of primary data of subjects above 18 years in India for further review by the committee.

Also Read: SII makes strategic investment in IntegriMedical, India’s First Needle-Free Injection System Technology

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Justify Sample Size: CDSCO Panel Tells Windlas Biotech on Cardiovascular FDC

New Delhi: Reviewing the bioequivalence (BE) study report of the fixed-dose combination (FDC) of cardiovascular drug Bisoprolol Fumarate (2.5mg/5mg/10mg) plus Telmisartan (20mg/40mg/80mg) plus Chlorthalidone (6.25 mg / 12.5mg /12.5mg), the Subject Expert Committee (SEC) functional under the Central Drug Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) has advised Windlas Biotech to justify sample size in light of intra-subject variability observed for the drug Telmisartan in the BE study report.

Furthermore, the expert panel stated that the firm should submit the revised structured phase III clinical trial protocol as per New Drugs and Clinical Trials Rules (NDCT Rules), 2019 for review by the committee.

This came after Windlas Biotech presented the proposal along with the BE study report along with the Phase III clinical trial protocol before the committee.

Bisoprolol is a beta-1 adrenergic blocking agent used to prevent myocardial infarction and heart failure and to treat mild to moderate hypertension. Bisoprolol is also used to prevent chest pain caused by angina.

Telmisartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB). It works by blocking a substance in the body that causes blood vessels to tighten. As a result, telmisartan relaxes the blood vessels. This lowers blood pressure and increases the supply of blood and oxygen to the heart.

Chlorthalidone is a medication used in the management and treatment of hypertension. It is in the thiazide-like diuretics class of drugs. This activity reviews chlorthalidone’s indications, action, and contraindications as a valuable agent in managing hypertension, edema, and calcium nephrolithiasis.

At the recent SEC meeting for Cardiovascular held on 23rd April 2024, the expert panel reviewed the proposal for the BE study report along with the Phase III clinical trial protocol of the fixed-dose combination Bisoprolol Fumarate plus Telmisartan plus Chlorthalidone.

After detailed deliberation, the committee opined that the firm should submit the justification for sample size in light of intra-subject variability observed for the drug Telmisartan in the BE study report.

Furthermore, the committee recommended that the firm submit the revised structured Phase III CT Protocol as per NDCT Rules, 2019 for review by the committee.

Also Read: Eli Lilly Gets CDSCO Panel Nod to Study Lepodisiran

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HCG launches two new cancer care centres in Bengaluru, 125 beds to be added

Bengaluru: Healthcare Global Enterprises Limited (HCG) is expanding its footprint in Bengaluru with the launch of its two new state of the art, comprehensive cancer care centres in Whitefield and North Bengaluru. 

With this strategic expansion, India’s largest cancer care network plans to extend specialized and advanced modes of cancer treatment to these two highly populated neighborhoods in the city, making them the third and fourth in its hospital network in Bengaluru. The two strategically located centres will commence operations in early 2025.

Both facilities will provide the entire spectrum of cancer care, from high precision diagnosis to personalized treatment plans, all under one roof. The Whitefield and the North Bengaluru facility with integrated and holistic cancer care will accommodate a total of 125 beds.

Also Read:Mumbai: HCG unveils low-cost voice prosthesis device for throat cancer patients

The two additions to the HCG chain of cancer care hospitals in the city share locational advantage similar to the HCG’s flagship Centre of Excellence at KR Road and Double Road with a total of 300 beds. Along with these four modern centres, HCG has three daycare centers in the residential neighborhoods of Kalyan Nagar, Malleshwaram and Banashankari. HCG plans to add two new day care centres to the city network to reduce travel time and make cancer care easily accessible to patients who need repeated treatments like chemotherapy.

With the introduction of the MR LINAC radiation system in its North Bangalore facility, HCG is poised to revolutionize radiation therapy in the state. This state-of-the-art technology integrates magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) with linear accelerator (LINAC) to improve clinical outcomes, decrease side effects and reduce treatment period.

Dr B S Ajaikumar, Executive Chairman, Healthcare Global Enterprises Limited said, “As Bengaluru evolves into a metropolis, HCG remains outcome focused on its mission to bring world-class cancer care closer to a wider population.

Our new advanced centres at Whitefield and North Bengaluru are pivotal to our aim of extending our network to the local community sustainably, ensuring high-quality cancer care is accessible to all. With Bengaluru being HCG’s home ground, this expansion not only reflects our deep-rooted connection to the city but also our commitment to enhancing the healthcare landscape for the benefit of the local community”.

Mr Raj Gore, CEO, HealthCare Global Enterprises Ltd said, ” In a sector marked by demand-supply gap and fragmentation, there exists significant potential for growth and consolidation. We are focused on expanding our reach and taking HCG’s comprehensive & quality cancer care services closer to patients in and around Bengaluru. As a leading healthcare provider dedicated to excellence, we remain firm in our commitment to investing in new infrastructure, advanced treatments, and cutting-edge technology”.

HCG has further reiterated its position as a leading cancer care provider in the region. HCG’s present network encompasses 21 comprehensive cancer centres with 24 hospitals across India and Africa, and seven-day care centres.

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AIIMS Raipur Invites Applications For Master of Public Health course 2024, All Details Here

Raipur- All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS), Raipur is inviting online applications for entrance examination for admission to the Master of Public Health (MPH) course- 2024 session. Interested candidates have to fill out the application form for the MPH course by registering through the link mentioned in the advertisement. The last date to fill out the application form is 2 June 2024.

The entrance test is scheduled to be held on Wednesday 26 June 2024 between 11 am to 12.30 noon at AIIMS Raipur. However, the admit card for the entrance exam for the MPH course will be released on June 17, 2024. Admit Card will be sent to the candidates through the candidate’s email ID (as given in the application form) well before the date of examination.

The MPH course is of 2 years and offers a total of 6 seats for sponsored category candidates, where 4 for UR, 0 for EWS, 1 for ST, 0 for SC and 1 for OBC.

To avoid any discrepancy while applying for the MPH course 2024 session, AIIMS Raipur has also released an advertisement detailing the educational qualification, application fee, course fee and other important information.

HOW TO APPLY

1 Applicants must fill all the fields carefully since after submission of the online application requests for change in any information at any later stage will NOT be considered.

2 The candidates are requested to fill in the correct details regarding name/age/sex/caste/address/educational qualification and other relevant fields mentioned in the application.

3 Candidates may please note that unless they make the payment of the Application Fee, their application will be treated as INCOMPLETE.

4 PHOTOGRAPHS

i Photograph must be recent passport size coloured, preferably white, background.

ii Caps, hats and dark glasses are not allowed. Religious headwear is allowed but it must not cover the face.

iii Dimensions 200 x 230 pixels (preferred).

iv Size of the JPG file should be between 80 kb–100 kb essentially.

v Ensure that the size of the scanned image is not more than 100 KB.

5 SIGNATURE

i The applicant has to sign on white paper with a Black ink pen by the applicant.

ii The signature will be used to put on the Hall Ticket and wherever necessary.

iii If the Applicant’s signature on the answer script, at the time of the examination, does not match the signature on the Hall Ticket, the Applicant will be disqualified.

iv Dimensions 140 x 60 pixels (preferred).

v Size of the file should be between 50 kb – 80 kb essentially.

vi Ensure that the size of the scanned image is not more than 80 KB.

APPLICATION FEE AND MODE OF PAYMENT

1 General/OBC Category: 1500/- + Transaction Charges as applicable.

2 SC/ST/EWS Category: Rs. 1200/- + Transaction Charges as applicable.

3 PWBD Candidates are exempted from the Fee.

Candidates are required to pay the application fee through online mode only. The candidates should make sure to get the confirmation of the successful remittance by your bank and retain the proof of the same which may be required at the time of document verification. The application fee is non-refundable.

Additional charges viz. bank charges, service tax etc. incurred while making online payment of application fees will be borne by the candidate. Candidates are advised to take a print of the receipt of the fee of the Application Form for their records and future reference.

Payment of application fees by any other mode viz Cash, Cheque, Money Orders, Postal Orders, Pay Orders, Banker’s Cheques, Postal Stamps, etc., will not be accepted. Such applications will be summarily rejected. The decision of the Director, AIIMS Raipur in this regard shall be final and binding.

ESSENTIAL QUALIFICATION FOR CANDIDATES

Candidates with MBBS, BDS, BAMS, BHMS, BNYS, BUMS, BSMS, B Tech or BE (Any Branch), B.V.Sc., Nursing Sciences, Physiotherapy, Occupational Therapy, Pharmacy, OR Postgraduate degree in Statistics/ Biostatistics, Demography, Population Studies, Nutrition, Sociology, Economics, Psychology, Anthropology, Social Work, Management or Law.

COURSE FEES & STIPEND

S.NO

PARTICULARS

AMOUNT

1

Course Fee.

₹5856/-

2

Stipend.

₹ 25000/-

METHOD OF SELECTION

The entrance test will be a written test and will carry a total of 100 marks including 100 MCQs, however, there will be no negative marking for any wrong answer.

The syllabus for the entrance examination includes Population Sciences, Biostatistics, Epidemiology, Health Economics, National Health Program and Computer Knowledge and English.

FINAL RESULT

1 Final result will be declared based on the total marks obtained in the Written Examination. The percentile scores will be used to determine eligibility for admission. The candidate must secure a 50th percentile mark to be eligible for admission. The merit list will be prepared as per percentile score.

2 Based on the percentile obtained in the entrance examination selected candidates will undergo scrutiny for the verification of their documents and the final selected list of the candidates will be prepared accordingly subject to fulfilling the eligibility in all terms.

IMPORTANT POINTS

1 For the purpose of the application fee, the candidates belonging to the SC/ST/OBC (NCL)/EWS/PWBD category, the candidate must possess a certificate issued by a Competent Authority (as applicable to the category/format provided by AIIMS Raipur).

2 OBC (NCL) certificates must be issued within one year of the last date for application 02.06.2024 (i.e. issued between 01.06.2023 to 02.06.2024).

3 EWS certificates should be issued on or after on 01.04.2024 to the last date of filling out the application form i.e. 02.06.2024 based on the income of the year 2023-24.

4 ST/SC/PWBD certificates should be issued before the last of the application i.e. 02.06.2024.

To view the advertisement, click the link below

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HC Relief to FMG Accused of Submitting Fake 10+2 Marksheet for Permanent Registration

Srinagar: The Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh High Court recently granted relief to a Foreign Medical Graduate by quashing an order passed by the erstwhile Medical Council of India (MCI), now National Medical Commission (NMC), which had earlier denied him permanent registration for allegedly submitting a fake 10+2 marksheet.

Challenging the orders denying him permanent registration and cancelling his provisional registration, the doctor approached the High Court bench. While considering the matter, the HC bench of Justice Javed Iqbal Wani observed, “it is manifest beyond any doubt that the petitioner is eligible for grant of registration, irrespective of the fact as to whether the petitioner was ineligible for registration or not at the time when he filed the application in view of him having obtained 294/600 (49%) marks in 10+2 examination from the respondent Board.”

Noting that the doctor completed his MBBS back in the year 2000 and has been litigating before the Court for more than a decade, the Court directed NMC to consider the petitioner’s case for grant of permanent registration in terms of the provisions of the Act of 1956 which was in force at the time he had submitted the application. The Commission has been directed to decide on the application as expeditiously as possible, preferable within 8 weeks.

It was the petitioner’s case that he completed his Class 12th examination from the Jammu and Kashmir State Board of School Education and thereafter pursued MBBS in Ukraine and completed the course in June 2000 from the State Medical University of Lugansk, Ukraine.

Even though the MCI granted him a provisional registration and allowed him to undergo his rotatory internship programme at GMC Srinagar, the petitioner’s application for permanent registration under the Medical Council Act 1956 was denied by the MCI. 

This compelled the doctor to visit the MCI, wherein the then Deputy Director asked him to meet a clerk, who allegedly demanded Rs 50,000 as bribe from the petitioner for processing his case. 

Aggrieved of non-consideration of his case for grant of permanent registration, the petitioner filed a plea before the High Court in 2009. Responding to the plea, the MCI stated that the petitioner had submitted his 10+2 pass certificate issued by Bihar Intermediate Education Council, Patna which was found to be fake resulting into cancellation of his provisional registration certificate besides registration of a case/FIR. 

The plea remained pending before the Court and in the meantime, the petitioner became ineligible to seek employment anywhere in the country or outside the country because MCI did not grant permanent registration to him by the MCI. 

The Court disposed of the plea on 24.10.2019 with a direction to the petitioner to make a representation before the authorities seeking redressal of his grievance. Later, the petitioner filed another plea in 2021 on the ground that erstwhile MCI was replaced by NMC. The Court allowed the review petition allowing the petitioner to represent before the NMC. Following this, the petitioner submitted a representation before the NMC. However, NMC rejected the petitioner’s request for grant of permanent registration and also withdrew the provisional registration of the petitioner.

Again, the petitioner approached the High Court and responding to the plea, NMC stated that the Class 10+2 certificate issued by the Bihar Intermediate Education Council, Patna was fake and accordingly the provisional registration of the petitioner was cancelled and the Deputy Commissioner of Police, New Delhi was asked to register an FIR against the petitioner. 

Meanwhile, the J&K State Board of School Education filed its reply and stated that the Class 10+2 certificate issued in favour of the petitioner was genuine and the petitioner had obtained 294/600 marks in the exam. 

The Counsel for the petitioner denied that the petitioner had submitted any fake certificate before the MCI as he passed the Class 10+2 exam from J&K State Board and on the strength of the said certificate alone he had applied for registration, which was evident from the declaration form submitted by him before the MCI after completion of rotatory internship.

The petitioner’s counsel further submitted that the petitioner had applied for provisional registration in 2000 and during the pendency of the plea, he passed the screening test conducted by NMC in December 2022.

Referring to the response filed by NMC, the petitioner’s counsel argued that the annexed application form also did not reflect that the petitioner had applied for registration based on the Bihar Intermediate Education Council, Patna certificate. He also argued that the NMC did not place on record any FIR claimed to have been registered against the petitioner.

While considering the question of whether NMC was justified in rejecting the petitioner’s application for permanent registration and cancel his provisional registration, the Court noted that the petitioner “had no occasion to refer to the certificate of the Bihar Board, while further specifically pleading in the petition that an officer of the respondent 1 named in the petition demanded bribe from his and in default thereof involved the petitioner in a frivolous case having not been specifically denied by respondents.”

“In view of the aforesaid position it would neither be within the domain of this Court nor will this Court venture into the controversy as to how the said alleged fake certificate of Bihar Board came on the records of respondent 1 herein,” it further noted.

The Court also observed that nothing was on record to show that the petitioner was ever issued a notice or was provided with an opportunity of hearing before issuance of the order dated 04.01.2022 or the communication dated 07.05.2022 by NMC. Therefore, the Court opined that “the said action of the respondent 1[NMC] cannot, but be said to be violative of the principle of natural justice owing its origin to Article 14 of the Constitution.”

At this outset, the High Court placed reliance on the Apex Court order in the case of “Indian Doctors from Russia Welfare Association” case, in which the Apex Court had given its nod for the guidelines proposed by the Union Government to regulate the grant of registration of such doctors who completed the MBBS degree prior to March 15, 2001. The top court had held that those guidelines would apply for all such doctors who were similarly situated.

Referring to these guidelines, the Court held the petitioner eligible for grant of registration, irrespective of the fact as to whether the petitioner was ineligible for registration or not at the time when he filed the application in view of him having obtained 294/600 (49%) marks in 10+2 examination from the respondent Board.

Accordingly, the Court issued the following orders:

(i) By issuance of a writ of Certiorari, the impugned order dated 04.01.2022 as also the impugned communication dated 07.05.2002 are quashed.

(ii) By issuance of a writ of Mandamus, the respondent 1 NMC is commanded to effectively consider the case of the petitioner for grant of permanent registration in terms of the provisions of the Act of 1956 which was in force at the time the petitioner submitted his application, as expeditiously as possible preferable within a period of 8 weeks from the date a copy of this order is served by the petitioner upon respondent 1 and in the said process shall also offer an opportunity of hearing to the petitioner.

To view the order, click on the link below:

https://medicaldialogues.in/pdf_upload/jk-hc-238661.pdf

Also Read: HC relief to Doctor who took MBBS admission based on false information, says withdrawal of qualification would be national loss

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IPGMER Doctors perform combined heart-lung transplant on young patient

Kolkata: In a remarkable medical feat, West Bengal witnessed a historic moment as a young patient received both a heart and lung from a single donor who was declared brain dead at the state government-run Institute of Post Graduate Medical Education and Research (IPGMER)-SSKM Hospital in Kolkata.

A farmer by profession, 52-year-old Arun Kumar Kole, who was undergoing treatment at the hospital, was declared brain dead on Sunday night, sources said.

According to a PTI report, “The complicated transplant of the two organs on the young patient started late Monday evening. It was conducted by a team of doctors at the SSKM Hospital. Following the surgery which ended this morning, he has been kept under observation,” a doctor said.

Also Read:West Bengal CM visits SSKM Hospital for health check-up

The transplantation took place at the Institute of Post-Graduate Medical Education & Research of the SSKM Hospital.

Kole sustained severe injuries after being involved in a scooter accident on May 10. After receiving initial treatment at another medical facility, he was transferred to SSKM Hospital due to a deterioration in his condition.

“My father-in-law underwent brain surgery on May 11, but there was no improvement in his condition. He was declared brain-dead on Sunday. After that, we agreed to donate his organs so that he remains alive among others,” Kole’s son-in-law Satyajit Mondal told PTI on Tuesday evening.

A 28-year-old woman, who has been under treatment at the SSKM Hospital, and another 32-year-old woman admitted to the Command Hospital in Alipore received one kidney each from Kole, doctors said.

A 51-year-old woman received a liver.

Medical Dialogues team had earlier reported that Fortis Hospital Bannerghatta Road recently achieved yet another significant clinical milestone with the successful completion of complex Robotic Kidney Transplant Surgeries for end-stage kidney disease. The procedures were conducted on two patients: an 11-year-old boy from Yemen, and a 34-year-old man from Bengaluru. Both underwent live-related kidney transplant surgeries, with their aunt and father serving as donors, respectively.

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KEM Hospital Pune launches Multidisciplinary Medical Genetics Department

Pune: KEM Hospital has announced the
launch of a groundbreaking multidisciplinary Medical Genetics department, a
first-of-its-kind in Pune. This new department features speciality clinics in
reproductive genetics, cancer genetics, neurogenetics, and nephrogenetics,
which are currently available only at a few healthcare facilities across
the country.

The inauguration of the Medical Genetics
department was marked by the presence of Dr X K Coyaji, Medical Director of
KEM Pune, and Dr V M Joshi, Director of Obstetrics and Gynaecology at KEM
Pune. The department will offer an extensive array of laboratory tests and
genetic counselling services all in one place. These services will be
provided under the expert guidance and supervision of renowned geneticists Dr
Meenal Agarwal, Dr Chaitanya Datar, and Dr Manisha Doiphode.

The reproductive genetics clinic will offer
preconception genetic testing for couples planning pregnancy, as well as
genetic tests for pregnant women and couples with a family history of
developmental delays, autism, and other conditions. The cancer genetics clinic
will provide genetic testing for individuals with a family history of cancer to
assess their risk levels and enable preventive measures. It will also offer
genetic testing of cancer tissue for patients already diagnosed with cancer to
determine the best treatment and targeted therapies. 

Dr Meenal Agarwal, medical geneticist, KEM Pune,
told Hindustan Times, “The medical genetics department will work along with the departments of
oncology, nephrology, neurology, obstetrics and gynaecology, IVF and foetal
medicine (assisted reproductive therapy/ART) and paediatrics to offer
comprehensive genetic testing services and pre-and post-test counselling.”

In the neurogenetics clinic, individuals with
seizure disorders or metabolic disorders can undergo genetic testing to
identify specific drugs or therapies tailored to their genetic defects. The
nephrogenetics clinic will offer specialized services for kidney-related
genetic conditions.

Dr Agarwal emphasized that genetic tests are
primarily blood tests, but they are complex and do not yield simple ‘yes’ or
‘no’ answers. The results require careful interpretation by experienced
professionals. “A majority of genetic disorders occur when there is no
family history. Genetic testing is not only for the betterment of the next
generation but also helps in the treatment of affected individuals undergoing
genetic testing which is what we want to emphasise,” she said.

Dr Madhur Rao, Senior Deputy Medical
Administrator at KEM Pune, and Shirin Wadia, General Administrator at KEM Pune,
expressed their enthusiasm for the new Medical Genetics department. They
believe that this development represents a significant milestone for the
hospital and the healthcare sector in Pune. It showcases KEM Hospital’s
commitment to expanding multidisciplinary services and ensuring that quality
healthcare is accessible at reasonable costs.

The establishment of the Medical Genetics
department at KEM Hospital is expected to greatly enhance the healthcare
services available in Pune, providing advanced diagnostic and treatment options
to patients with complex genetic conditions.

Also Read: Do not Charge MBBS Fees in Advance: FRA directs Nagpur’s Medical College

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